A 16-year-old male patient comes to the free clinic and is subsequently diagnosed with primary syphilis. What health problem most likely prompted the patient to seek care?
- A. The emergence of a chancre on his penis
- B. Painful urination
- C. Signs of a systemic infection
- D. Unilateral testicular swelling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre at the infection site. Painful urination, systemic symptoms, or testicular swelling are not typical.
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A mother brings her 12 month-old son into the clinic for his measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccination. What would the clinic nurse advise the mother about the MMR vaccine?
- A. Photophobia and hives might occur.
- B. There are no documented reactions to an MMR.
- C. Fever and hypersensitivity reaction might occur.
- D. Hypothermia might occur.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR vaccination may cause fever and hypersensitivity reactions. Photophobia, hives, and hypothermia are not typical, and reactions are well-documented.
Family members are caring for a patient with HIV in the patients home. What should the nurse encourage family members to do to reduce the risk of infection transmission?
- A. Use caution when shaving the patient.
- B. Use separate dishes for the patient.
- C. Use separate bed linens for the patient.
- D. Disinfect the patients bedclothes regularly.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Caution during shaving prevents exposure to HIV via blood. Separate dishes, linens, or disinfection are unnecessary unless blood contamination occurs.
A long-term care facility is the site of an outbreak of infectious diarrhea. The nurse educator has emphasized the importance of hand hygiene to staff members. The use of alcohol-based cleansers may be ineffective if the causative microorganism is identified as what?
- A. Shigella
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Clostridium difficile
- D. Norovirus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile spores resist alcohol-based cleansers, requiring soap and water handwashing. Shigella, E. coli, and Norovirus are susceptible to alcohol-based products.
A clinic nurse is caring for a male patient diagnosed with gonorrhea who has been prescribed ceftriaxone and doxycycline. The patient asks why he is receiving two antibiotics. What is the nurses best response?
- A. There are many drug-resistant strains of gonorrhea, so more than one antibiotic may be required for successful treatment.
- B. The combination of these two antibiotics reduces the later risk of reinfection.
- C. Many people infected with gonorrhea are infected with chlamydia as well.
- D. This combination of medications will eradicate the infection twice as fast than a single antibiotic.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dual therapy with ceftriaxone and doxycycline targets common co-infection with chlamydia in gonorrhea patients. It does not primarily address resistance, reinfection, or speed of cure.
A male patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted him to seek medical attention?
- A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
- B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
- C. Painful, red papules on the shaft of the penis
- D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Foul-smelling penile discharge is a hallmark symptom of gonorrhea, often accompanied by painful urination. Rashes indicate syphilis, warts suggest HPV, and painful papules are associated with herpes.
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