ATI Hematologic System Quizlet

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A 16-year-old patient with a left-side pelvic osteosarcoma is taking extended release oxycodone twice daily as well as immediate release oxycodone for breakthrough pain approximately 2 or 3 times per day. She describes her pain as burning, tingling, and shooting in her left leg. Her pain worsens with hot showers. Her most recent EKG has a QTc of 495. What would be the best strategy to manage her pain?

  • A. Switch from long-acting oxycodone to methadone.
  • B. Recommend more frequent use of her immediate release oxycodone.
  • C. Add amitriptyline daily. Start low and titrate upward on dosage.
  • D. Add gabapentin three times daily. Start low and titrate upward on dose.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Add gabapentin three times daily. Gabapentin is a first-line option for neuropathic pain, which is likely the cause of the patient's burning, tingling, and shooting leg pain. The worsening of pain with hot showers is also characteristic of neuropathic pain. Gabapentin's mechanism of action in reducing neuropathic pain makes it a suitable choice for this patient. Switching to methadone (A) may not directly address the neuropathic pain component. Recommending more frequent use of immediate release oxycodone (B) may lead to increased risk of opioid-related adverse effects. While amitriptyline (C) is also used for neuropathic pain, starting with gabapentin is more appropriate given the patient's current opioid regimen and EKG findings.

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A patient with a bleeding disorder is prescribed an infusion of plasma. What should the nurse explain as being the purpose of this infusion?

  • A. Contains clotting factors
  • B. Carries oxygen to the tissues
  • C. Supports cellular metabolism
  • D. Removes waste products from cells
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contains clotting factors. Plasma is the liquid component of blood that contains essential clotting factors necessary for blood coagulation. This infusion helps replenish clotting factors in patients with bleeding disorders, aiding in the formation of blood clots to stop bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as plasma does not carry oxygen; that is the role of red blood cells. Choice C is incorrect as plasma does not directly support cellular metabolism; that is the role of nutrients. Choice D is incorrect as plasma does not remove waste products; that is the role of the kidneys and liver.

A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?

  • A. Vestibular system
  • B. Cerebral cortex
  • C. Hypothalamus
  • D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E

Rationale: I apologize, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the choices provided in the question. If you could kindly provide the correct answer, I would be more than happy to provide a detailed explanation for why that answer is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect.

The nurse notes that a patient's gaping wound is developing a blood clot. Which body substance is responsible for this clot formation?

  • A. Plasma
  • B. Platelets
  • C. Red blood cells
  • D. White blood cells
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Platelets are responsible for clot formation in the body. When a wound occurs, platelets are activated and adhere to the site, forming a plug to stop bleeding. They release chemicals to further enhance clot formation. Plasma is the liquid component of blood, red blood cells carry oxygen, and white blood cells are part of the immune system, none of which are directly involved in clot formation.

Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?

  • A. Iron deficiency
  • B. Primaquine
  • C. Pregnancy
  • D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with this type of anemia due to increased blood volume and iron demands. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is typically microcytic hypochromic. Primaquine (choice B) is not known to cause normocytic normochromic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) results in hemolytic anemia with abnormal red blood cell morphology. Thus, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia.

A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patient's needs for physical activity?

  • A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
  • B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
  • C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
  • D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assisting the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated, is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing debilitating fatigue during consolidation therapy for leukemia. This option promotes mobility and prevents further deconditioning without overwhelming the patient.

A: Teaching about risks and benefits may not directly address the immediate need for physical activity.
C: Stair exercises may be too strenuous for a fatigued patient and could potentially exacerbate their condition.
D: Deep breathing and coughing exercises are important but do not directly address the need for physical activity to combat fatigue.

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