The nurse provides education to the person undergoing a surgical abortion. What response by the person shows an understanding of the education?
- A. “It’s good I won’t have any pain after the procedure.â€
- B. “I think I’m sure about my decision.â€
- C. “I should call if I soak a pad in 2 hours.â€
- D. “I should follow up for contraception counseling at my annual exam in 6 months.â€
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because soaking a pad in 2 hours could indicate excessive bleeding, a potential complication after a surgical abortion. This response shows understanding of the education provided by the nurse about when to seek immediate medical attention.
Choice A is incorrect because it is not true that there will be no pain after a surgical abortion; pain is a common experience post-procedure. Choice B is incorrect because it does not demonstrate an understanding of the key information provided during education. Choice D is incorrect because contraception counseling should be addressed sooner than 6 months post-abortion to prevent unintended pregnancies.
You may also like to solve these questions
Why was the Bradley Method originally introduced?
- A. as a novel approach to pregnancy where low-intervention, medication-free births were the goal
- B. as an education program that supported use of twilight birth
- C. as a system of supporting families wanting community birth
- D. as a program of education that focused on the importance of using a doula instead of a partner as a birth support
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: as a novel approach to pregnancy where low-intervention, medication-free births were the goal. The Bradley Method was introduced in the late 1940s by Dr. Robert Bradley with the aim of empowering women to have natural childbirth experiences without unnecessary medical interventions. This method promotes education and preparation for childbirth, emphasizing relaxation techniques, partner involvement, and natural pain management strategies. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because they do not align with the fundamental principles of the Bradley Method, which focuses on promoting low-intervention, medication-free births through education and empowerment of expectant parents.
A patient has just been admitted to labor and delivery. She is having mild contractions lasting 30 seconds every 15 minutes. The patient wants to have a mediation free birth. When discussing medication alternatives, the nurse should be sure the patient understands that:
- A. maternal pain and stress can have a more adverse effect on the fetus than a small amount of analgesia
- B. In order to respect her wishes no pain medication will be given
- C. the use of medication allows the patient to rest and be less fatigued
- D. pain relief will allow a more enjoyable birth experience
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because maternal pain and stress can lead to increased levels of stress hormones, which can negatively affect the fetus. By providing a small amount of analgesia, the patient can experience relief from pain and stress without compromising the well-being of the fetus.
Option B is incorrect because it disregards the potential benefits of providing some pain relief to the patient while still respecting her desire for a medication-free birth.
Option C is incorrect because while medication may provide some rest and alleviate fatigue, the primary concern in this scenario is the impact on the fetus rather than the patient's comfort.
Option D is incorrect because the main focus should be on ensuring the safety and well-being of both the mother and the fetus, rather than solely on the mother's enjoyment of the birth experience.
A couple comes in for an infertility workup, having attempted to get pregnant for 2 years. The woman, 37, has always had irregular menstrual cycles but is otherwise healthy. The man has fathered two children from a previous marriage and had a vasectomy reversal 2 years ago. The man has had two normal semen analyses, but the sperm seem to be clumped together. What additional test is needed?
- A. FSH level
- B. Antisperm antibodies
- C. Testicular biopsy
- D. Test of testicular infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antisperm antibodies. In this case, the man's history of vasectomy reversal and normal semen analyses with clumped sperm suggest a possible presence of antisperm antibodies. These antibodies can cause sperm agglutination, affecting fertility. Testing for antisperm antibodies can provide valuable information on potential immune-related infertility issues.
A: FSH level is not the most appropriate test in this scenario as the man's semen analyses were normal, indicating potential issues with sperm-egg interaction rather than hormonal imbalances.
C: Testicular biopsy is invasive and not necessary at this stage when the issue seems to be related to sperm clumping rather than a structural problem within the testes.
D: Test of testicular infection is unlikely as the man's semen analyses were normal, and there are no indications of infection based on the information provided.
The nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks' gestation with suspected preterm labor. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer corticosteroids as prescribed.
- B. Encourage ambulation to relieve contractions.
- C. Provide the client with a high-protein snack.
- D. Monitor maternal blood pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer corticosteroids as prescribed. Administering corticosteroids helps accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It is the priority action in suspected preterm labor at 34 weeks' gestation.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
B: Encouraging ambulation may not be safe in preterm labor as it can increase the risk of delivering the baby prematurely.
C: Providing a high-protein snack is not the priority action in suspected preterm labor.
D: Monitoring maternal blood pressure is important, but not the priority in this situation where the focus is on preventing complications for the preterm infant.
The nurse is caring for a client in the third trimester reporting severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Placenta previa.
- B. HELLP syndrome.
- C. Hyperemesis gravidarum.
- D. Abruptio placentae.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: HELLP syndrome. In the third trimester, severe right upper quadrant pain and nausea can indicate HELLP syndrome, a serious pregnancy complication involving hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. The pain and nausea are due to liver and gallbladder involvement. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, not upper quadrant pain. Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting but not specific upper quadrant pain. Abruptio placentae presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.