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A 17-year-old client is admitted to the ED after being alternately hyperalert and difficult to arouse. His symptoms all started within the last few hours, during which time he became agitated and restless, and his memory was impaired, especially for recent events. The client displayed some delusions and misinterpretations of his surroundings. The nurse knows she needs to assess the client further for:
- A. Drug use.
- B. Infection.
- C. Metabolic disorder.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drug use. Given the client's sudden onset of symptoms, including altered mental status, agitation, memory impairment, delusions, and misinterpretations of surroundings, drug use is the most likely cause. Step 1: Consider the timeline - symptoms started within a few hours. Step 2: Review the symptoms - agitation, memory impairment, delusions, altered mental status. Step 3: Think of common causes for acute onset of these symptoms - drug use can lead to these manifestations. Step 4: Rule out other potential causes - infection and metabolic disorders typically present with different symptomatology and are less likely in this acute scenario. Step 5: Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client for drug use to provide appropriate interventions.
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A client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder seeks treatment for depression after the recent breakup of a relationship. The client constantly procrastinated about proposing marriage and said his girlfriend complained that he did not show her affection and that he was too controlling. Now he describes inability to sleep, poor concentration, and loss of energy since the breakup. Which outcome is a priority for the client? The client will:
- A. Demonstrate assertive behavior
- B. Express hope for developing a new relationship in the future
- C. Identify feelings of sadness related to the failed relationship
- D. List three new ways to reduce stress
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identify feelings of sadness related to the failed relationship. This is the priority outcome because the client's current symptoms of depression, such as inability to sleep, poor concentration, and loss of energy, are likely related to the breakup. By identifying and processing feelings of sadness, the client can begin to work through the grief and emotional distress caused by the failed relationship, which can help alleviate the depressive symptoms.
Choice A (Demonstrate assertive behavior) is not the priority outcome as the client's primary issue is related to depression and processing emotions, not assertiveness. Choice B (Express hope for developing a new relationship in the future) may be important for the client's overall well-being, but it is not the immediate priority for addressing the current depressive symptoms. Choice D (List three new ways to reduce stress) may be helpful in managing symptoms, but it does not address the core issue of processing emotions related to the breakup.
The outcome that should be established for an elderly patient with delirium caused by fever and dehydration is that the patient will:
- A. Return to a premorbid level of functioning.
- B. Demonstrate motor responses to noxious stimuli.
- C. Identify stressors negatively affecting self.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the goal in managing delirium in an elderly patient is to restore them to their premorbid level of functioning. This involves addressing the underlying causes like fever and dehydration. Option B is incorrect as it focuses on a neurological response rather than the overall outcome for the patient. Option C is also incorrect as it pertains to identifying stressors, which is not the primary goal in managing delirium. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of restoring the patient to their baseline level of functioning.
In an art therapy session, a client with anorexia nervosa was asked to draw a picture of herself. Which drawing would likely depict the client's view of herself?
- A. A tall, slim girl with obvious muscle definition.
- B. A malnourished teenager with thin, lanky extremities.
- C. A grossly obese figure lacking feminine characteristics.
- D. A shapely figure of a model who she admires.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and see themselves as larger than they actually are. Drawing a grossly obese figure lacking feminine characteristics reflects the distorted self-perception common in anorexia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect as it portrays a positive body image. Choice B may be close, but it focuses more on malnourishment rather than distorted body image. Choice D is incorrect as it reflects admiration for a shapely figure, which may not align with the client's self-perception.
Which statement about aging provides the best rationale for focused assessment of elderly patients?
- A. The elderly are usually socially isolated and lonely
- B. Vision, hearing, touch, taste, and smell decline with age
- C. The majority of elderly patients have some form of early dementia
- D. As people age, thinking becomes more rigid and learning is impaired
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Only the key is a true statement. It cues the nurse to assess sensory function in the elderly patient. Correcting vision and hearing are critical to providing safe care. The distracters are myths about aging.
An older adult patient who lives with a daughter and attends the Alzheimer day hospital program exhibits bilateral bruising for the second time on both upper outer arms. When the nurse questions the patient about the bruising, the patient starts to cry and pleads, 'Please don't say anything. It's not my daughter's fault. I just bruise easily.' Which intervention reflects the best management of this situation?
- A. Call the daughter to discuss both the bruising and her parent's reaction.
- B. Report the elder abuse, and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention.
- C. Notify the patient's social worker of the bruising after a complete assessment has been completed.
- D. Inform the patient and the daughter of your intention to document the bruising and arrange for appropriate counseling.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report the elder abuse and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention. This is the best intervention as it prioritizes the safety and well-being of the older adult. Here's the rationale:
1. The patient's repeated bruising and fear of disclosure indicate potential abuse.
2. Reporting elder abuse is mandatory to ensure protection for the patient.
3. Informing the patient and daughter shows transparency and involves them in the process.
4. It is crucial to address the situation promptly to prevent further harm.
Summary:
A: Calling the daughter may escalate the situation and compromise the patient's safety.
C: Notifying the social worker without addressing the abuse directly may delay necessary action.
D: Counseling may be beneficial, but addressing the abuse is a priority to ensure the patient's safety.