The Hematologic System ATI

The Hematologic System ATI Related

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A 2-month-old girl is found to have a small, hard mass on her scalp. The mass increases in size over the next 4 weeks. A biopsy is performed that confirms a diagnosis of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. You initiate chemotherapy with vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide. The child presents to clinic for day 1 of cycle 3 of chemotherapy, and the mass on her scalp is smaller. She is afebrile, absolute neutrophil count is 1,405 cells/mcL, platelet count is 154,000/mcL, and total bilirubin is 0.8 mg/dL. Her mother reports she looks very tired because her eyelids have been 'very droopy,' and she thinks she has a sore throat because her cry is hoarse. Her last bowel movement was 2 days ago. What is the most appropriate chemotherapy plan?

  • A. Continue vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide at full dosage.
  • B. Do not administer any chemotherapy; rhabdomyosarcoma is progressing and she needs different therapy.
  • C. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but hold the vincristine and reevaluate weekly. If the ptosis and hoarse cry resolve, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction and, if tolerated, re-escalated to the full dose in the future.
  • D. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but discontinue vincristine permanently.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the child is showing signs of vincristine-induced neurotoxicity, which can manifest as droopy eyelids (ptosis) and hoarse cry. Holding vincristine and reevaluating weekly allows for monitoring of symptoms. If resolved, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction to prevent further neurotoxicity. Dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide are continued to maintain treatment efficacy. Continuing full-dose vincristine (choice A) can worsen neurotoxicity. With rhabdomyosarcoma responding to the current regimen, stopping all chemotherapy (choice B) is not appropriate. Discontinuing vincristine permanently (choice D) may compromise the treatment plan.

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An 18-year old male patient presents with bruising, fatigue, and diffuse extremity pain. He is noted to be tachypneic and hypoxic and has a diffuse interstitial infiltrate on chest x-ray. CBC reveals a WBC count of 285,000/mm3 (85% myeloblasts, with monocytic morphology), hemoglobin of 7.9 g/dL, and platelet count of 36,000/mm3. What is the most likely cause of the infiltrate and respiratory symptoms and the most appropriate initial treatment?

  • A. Hyperleukocytosis; initiation of induction chemotherapy
  • B. Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy
  • C. COVID-19 infection; convalescent plasma and prednisone
  • D. Pneumococcal pneumonia; vancomycin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperleukocytosis; leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion and initiation of induction chemotherapy. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms and lab findings are consistent with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with leukostasis, causing hypoxia and interstitial infiltrates. Leukapheresis or manual exchange transfusion is crucial to rapidly reduce the high white blood cell count, which can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications like tissue hypoxia. Initiation of induction chemotherapy is also essential for long-term management of AML.

Rationale for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Hyperleukocytosis alone without leukostasis does not typically require immediate leukoreduction, as in this case. Induction chemotherapy should be initiated promptly to address the underlying AML.
C: COVID-19 infection would not typically present with such profound leukocytosis and monocytic morphology. Convalescent plasma and prednisone are not

Plat. Transfusion is not indicated in:

  • A. aplastic an.
  • B. uraemia with bleeding
  • C. DIC
  • D. immunogenic thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: immunogenic thrombocytopenia. Platelet transfusion is not indicated in immunogenic thrombocytopenia because it involves antibodies attacking platelets, which would render transfused platelets ineffective. Platelet transfusion is indicated in aplastic anemia (A) to increase platelet count, in uremia with bleeding (B) to replace dysfunctional platelets, and in DIC (C) to help manage severe bleeding. In summary, platelet transfusion is contraindicated in immunogenic thrombocytopenia due to ineffective platelet response.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention?

  • A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
  • B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
  • C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
  • D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. This intervention is appropriate because it focuses on improving the patient's nutritional intake through easily digestible meals, which can help address early signs of malnutrition. Small, soft-textured meals are easier for the patient to eat, especially if they are experiencing symptoms like mouth sores or difficulty swallowing. This approach also promotes regular intake of nutrients throughout the day, which can be more beneficial than relying solely on one large meal.

Incorrect answers:
A: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate oral or enteral nutrition. It is not the first-line intervention for early signs of malnutrition.
B: Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement is usually considered for patients who are unable to eat orally in the long term. It is not indicated for early signs of malnutrition.
D: Assigning responsibility for the patient's nutrition to friends and

RBCs break into fragments, they are referred to as schistocytes. These type of cells are seen in

  • A. Sickle cell trait
  • B. Thalassemia
  • C. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Schistocytes are fragmented red blood cells caused by mechanical damage as they pass through narrowed vessels. This occurs in conditions like thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndrome, which are types of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell trait (A) and Thalassemia (B) are genetic disorders affecting red blood cell structure and production, not causing mechanical fragmentation. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (D) is a disorder characterized by low platelet count, unrelated to RBC fragmentation.

Dengue is a common vector-borne disease prevalent in tropical countries. Which of the following statement is true for dengue fever?

  • A. It is caused by a DNA virus
  • B. The vector once infected with the virus remains infective for life
  • C. The vector prefers polluted water for propagation
  • D. Joint symptoms are commoner in dengue fever compared to chikungunya
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Aedes mosquito, the vector for dengue fever, remains infective for life once it is infected with the dengue virus. This is due to the virus establishing a lifelong infection in the mosquito's salivary glands. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Dengue is caused by an RNA virus, not a DNA virus. C) The Aedes mosquito prefers clean, stagnant water for breeding, not polluted water. D) Joint symptoms are commoner in chikungunya, not dengue fever.

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