Nokea
Which of the following is not true in thrombasthenia:
- A. prolonged bleeding time
- B. normal plat .Count
- C. plat .Aggregation defect
- D. prolonged clotting time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In thrombasthenia, there is a deficiency or dysfunction of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor complex on platelets, leading to impaired platelet aggregation. This results in prolonged bleeding time due to ineffective platelet plug formation (choice A). Platelet count is typically normal (choice B). Platelet aggregation is defective (choice C). However, clotting time is not affected in thrombasthenia as it primarily involves platelet function, not the clotting factors involved in coagulation (choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is D.
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A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арrepitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vomiting center. Ondansetron and aprepitant are antiemetic medications that work by inhibiting signaling in the vomiting center of the brain. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata in the brainstem, which plays a crucial role in triggering the reflexes that lead to nausea and vomiting. By blocking signals in the vomiting center, these medications effectively prevent and control nausea and vomiting.
Incorrect choices:
A: The vestibular system is responsible for balance and spatial orientation, not for controlling nausea and vomiting.
B: The cerebral cortex is involved in higher brain functions such as thinking and decision-making, not in regulating nausea and vomiting.
C: The hypothalamus regulates various physiological processes like temperature regulation and hormone release, but it is not directly involved in controlling nausea and vomiting.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption, not excess stomach acid. Premature graying of hair is unrelated. Presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibody and risk of gastric polyps are associated with pernicious anemia, but not hyperchlorhydria. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical symptoms and characteristics of pernicious anemia.
Dengue is a common vector-borne disease prevalent in tropical countries. Which of the following statement is true for dengue fever?
- A. It is caused by a DNA virus
- B. The vector once infected with the virus remains infective for life
- C. The vector prefers polluted water for propagation
- D. Joint symptoms are commoner in dengue fever compared to chikungunya
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Aedes mosquito, the vector for dengue fever, remains infective for life once it is infected with the dengue virus. This is due to the virus establishing a lifelong infection in the mosquito's salivary glands. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Dengue is caused by an RNA virus, not a DNA virus. C) The Aedes mosquito prefers clean, stagnant water for breeding, not polluted water. D) Joint symptoms are commoner in chikungunya, not dengue fever.
You are seeing a 12-year-old female who presented to the emergency department with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. Imaging that was obtained to rule out appendicitis revealed a mass adjacent to the bladder. The mass was surgically resected, and pathology demonstrated a paraganglioma. Which of the studies below would be most useful to determine disease stage for this patient?
- A. Bone Scan
- B. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid cytology
- C. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
- D. Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT. This imaging study is the most useful for determining the disease stage in a patient with paraganglioma. Paragangliomas are neuroendocrine tumors that express somatostatin receptors, which can be detected using Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT. This imaging modality helps to localize primary and metastatic lesions, as well as assess disease extent and stage.
Now let's analyze the other options:
A: Bone Scan - Not useful for determining disease stage in paraganglioma.
B: Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid cytology - Not indicated for staging paraganglioma.
C: Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy - Not specific for staging paraganglioma.
In summary, Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT is the most appropriate study for determining disease stage in a patient with paraganglioma due to its
An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem?
- A. Hodgkin disease
- B. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
- C. Multiple Myeloma
- D. Acute Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Multiple Myeloma. This condition commonly presents with symptoms such as fatigue, back pain, and rib pain due to bone involvement. In older adults, these symptoms should raise suspicion for multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. The nurse should assess for further signs such as anemia, hypercalcemia, renal impairment, and bone lesions. Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma usually present with lymphadenopathy rather than bone pain. Acute Thrombocytopenia would present with symptoms related to low platelet count, such as bruising or bleeding, not fatigue and bone pain.