Nokea
A 20-year-old client is interested in protection from the human papilloma virus (HPV) since she may become sexually active. Which response from the nurse is the most accurate?
- A. You are too old to receive an HPV vaccine.
- B. Either Gardasil or Cervarix can provide protection.
- C. You will need to have three injections over a span of 1 year.
- D. The most common side effect of the vaccine is itching at the injection site.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current HPV vaccines are Gardasil and Cervarix, which should be given before the first sexual contact to protect against the highest risk HPV types associated with cervical cancer. The client is not too old since it is recommended that younger women, 19-26 years, should receive an HPV vaccine. The series consists of three injections over 6 months, not 1 year. Local pain and redness surrounding the injection site are very common, but this does not include itching.
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The nurse is educating a client on the prevention of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which statement by the client indicates a lack of understanding?
- A. I need to change the tampon every 3 hours during the day.
- B. At night, I should use a feminine pad rather than a tampon.
- C. If I don't use tampons, I should not get TSS.
- D. I should wash my hands before inserting the tampon.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tampons need to be changed every 3 to 6 hours to avoid infection by such organisms as Staphylococcus aureus. All of the other responses are correct: using feminine pads only, not using tampons at all, and washing hands before tampon insertion are all strategies to prevent TSS.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with toxic shock syndrome. Which action by the nurse is the most important?
- A. Administer IV fluids to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
- B. Remove the tampon as the source of infection.
- C. Collect a blood specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Transfuse the client to manage low blood count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The source of infection should be removed first. All of the other answers are possible interventions depending on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but removing the tampon is the priority.
The nurse is teaching a client who is undergoing brachytherapy about what to immediately report to her health care provider. Which signs and symptoms would be included in this teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Constipation for 3 days
- B. Severe diarrhea
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Visible blood in the urine
- E. Heavy vaginal bleeding
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: Health teaching for a client having brachytherapy should emphasize reporting abdominal pain, visible blood in the urine, and heavy vaginal bleeding. Severe diarrhea, urethral burning, extreme fatigue, and a fever over 100°F should also be reported. Constipation for 3 days is not typically a critical symptom to report immediately in this context.
A 55-year-old post-menopausal woman is assessed by the nurse with a history of dyspareunia, backache, pelvic pressure, urinary tract infections, and frequent urinary urgency. Which condition does the nurse suggest?
- A. Ovarian cyst
- B. Rectocele
- C. Cystocele
- D. Fibroid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dyspareunia, backache, pelvic pressure, urinary tract infections, and urinary urgency are all symptoms of a cystocele, a protrusion of the bladder through the vaginal wall. Ovarian cysts are rare after menopause, a rectocele is associated with constipation, hemorrhoids, and local impaction. Fibroids are associated with heavy bleeding.
A postmenopausal client is experiencing low back and pelvic pain, fatigue, and bloody vaginal discharge. What laboratory tests would the nurse expect to see ordered for this client if endometrial cancer is suspected? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cancer antigens (CA-125)
- B. White blood cell (WBC) count
- C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Serum tumor markers such as CA-125 assess for metastasis, especially if elevated. H&H would evaluate the possibility of anemia, a common finding with postmenopausal bleeding with endometrial cancer. WBC count is not indicated since there are no signs of infection. The INR and PT are coagulation tests to measure the time it takes for a fibrin clot to form, used to evaluate coagulation in clients receiving oral warfarin.