A 24-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, tender nodules are palpated along the uterosacral ligaments. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
- A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
- B. Endometriosis
- C. Ovarian cyst rupture
- D. Uterine fibroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms of cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), and tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments are classic findings associated with endometriosis. In endometriosis, tissue similar to the lining of the uterus (endometrium) grows outside the uterus, commonly on the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and pelvic peritoneum. The presence of tender nodules along the uterosacral ligaments is known as "nodularity" and is a characteristic feature of advanced endometriosis. It occurs due to the formation of endometrial implants that respond to hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle, resulting in inflammation, scarring, and pain in affected areas.
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The lecturer reminded the committee members that bias is an influence that distorts study results. In quantitative research, which will eliminate bias?
- A. Trustworthiness
- B. Randomness
- C. Credibility
- D. Triangulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In quantitative research, randomness plays a crucial role in eliminating bias. Random sampling ensures that every individual or element in the population has an equal chance of being selected for the study. This helps in reducing the possibility of bias creeping into the results due to selective sampling or favoritism towards certain groups. By using random sampling methods, researchers can increase the generalizability of their findings and have a higher level of confidence that the results are unbiased and representative of the entire population. Therefore, randomness is a key mechanism to eliminate bias in quantitative research studies.
Which of the following characteristics of Cushing disease is TRUE? The disease occurs in women between 20 to 40 year of age. II.The use of Corticosteroids for multiple immune conditions is a cause of the disease process. III. Condition is aggravated by excessive production of ACTH. IV.The surgical treatment of choice is Transphenoidal hypophysectomy
- A. II & III
- B. I, II, III, & IV
- C. I, II, & III
- D. I & Il
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Statement II is correct because the use of corticosteroids for multiple immune conditions can lead to the development of Cushing's disease.
A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Symptoms began approximately 1 hour ago and have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Ischemic stroke
- B. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- C. Hemorrhagic stroke
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body, along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech that partially resolved within one hour, is consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). TIAs are caused by temporary disruption of blood flow to a part of the brain, leading to transient neurological symptoms. Unlike an ischemic stroke, which results in permanent damage to brain tissue due to prolonged interruption of blood flow, TIAs are transient and resolve within 24 hours. Hemorrhagic strokes and subarachnoid hemorrhages typically present with sudden, severe headaches, and may not improve or resolve quickly as seen in this case.
A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Branchial cleft cyst
- B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- C. Lymphadenopathy
- D. Parotid gland tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.
During surgery, the nurse notices an abnormal heart rhythm on the patient's cardiac monitor. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer antiarrhythmic medication
- B. Assess the patient's vital signs and symptoms
- C. Document the rhythm in the patient's chart
- D. Inform the anesthesiologist immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action when noticing an abnormal heart rhythm on the patient's cardiac monitor during surgery is to assess the patient's vital signs and symptoms. This is important because the nurse needs to gather more information about the patient's condition to determine the significance of the abnormal rhythm and the potential impact on the patient's health. By assessing the vital signs and symptoms, the nurse can obtain a more complete picture of the situation and make informed decisions about the next steps in caring for the patient. Once the assessment is done, appropriate actions such as administering medication or notifying the anesthesiologist can be taken based on the findings.