A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) presents with excessive daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and witnessed apneic episodes during sleep. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing OSA and improving symptoms?
- A. Weight loss and lifestyle modifications
- B. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) therapy
- C. Oral appliance therapy
- D. Surgical uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CPAP therapy is considered the gold standard treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and is the most appropriate intervention for managing OSA and improving symptoms. CPAP therapy involves using a machine that delivers a continuous flow of air through a mask worn over the nose or mouth during sleep. This air pressure helps keep the airway open, preventing the collapse that causes apneas and snoring during sleep.
You may also like to solve these questions
What nursing diagnosis would be MOST appropriate for a client admitted with heart failure?
- A. Risk for denial
- B. Ineffective tissue perfusion
- C. Impaired gas exchange
- D. Acute pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart failure is a condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's need for oxygen and nutrients. Ineffective tissue perfusion is a relevant nursing diagnosis for a client with heart failure because the heart's inability to effectively pump blood can lead to poor perfusion of tissues and organs, resulting in inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to cells. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, dyspnea, and edema, which are common in individuals with heart failure. By addressing ineffective tissue perfusion, nurses can focus on interventions to improve cardiac output and optimize tissue perfusion, ultimately improving the client's overall condition.
A woman in active labor is diagnosed with uterine rupture. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Preparing for immediate cesarean section
- B. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment contractions
- C. Assisting the mother into a hands-and-knees position
- D. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a woman diagnosed with uterine rupture during labor is to prepare for immediate cesarean section. Uterine rupture is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to severe maternal and fetal complications, including hemorrhage, fetal distress, and injury to both mother and baby. A cesarean section is necessary to deliver the baby promptly and address any potential complications, such as controlling bleeding and ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Time is critical in these situations, and prompt surgical intervention is essential to optimize outcomes. Administering intravenous oxytocin or assisting the mother into a hands-and-knees position would not address the immediate risks associated with uterine rupture. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is only necessary if the mother's condition deteriorates to the point of cardiac or respiratory arrest, which may occur as a result of significant hemorrhage or other complications associated with uterine
A patient presents with a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible. Ultrasound imaging demonstrates a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Branchial cleft cyst
- B. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- C. Lymphadenopathy
- D. Parotid gland tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a palpable, non-tender mass in the right neck, just below the angle of the mandible, along with ultrasound imaging findings of a well-defined, hypoechoic lesion with cystic components, is classic for a branchial cleft cyst. Branchial cleft cysts are congenital anomalies that arise from remnants of the branchial clefts or pouches during embryonic development. They are typically located along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just below the mandible. Ultrasound imaging often shows a cystic lesion with well-defined borders and hypoechoic content, which is consistent with the described findings. Thyroglossal duct cysts usually present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing or tongue protrusion, not in the location described in the scenario. Lymphadenopathy would present as enlarged lymph nodes that may be tender and associated with systemic symptoms.
Mr. C is an older patient with a known history of peripheral vascular disease. The nurse places a heating pad directly on the patient's lower leg to relieve muscle spasms. The heating pad causes a burn, the area becomes infected, and the patient eventually must have a skin graft. This is an example of which of the following?
- A. Malpractice
- B. Vicarious liability
- C. Assault
- D. Negligence
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Negligence refers to the failure to take proper care in doing something. In this scenario, the nurse failed to exercise the standard of care expected in placing a heating pad directly on Mr. C's lower leg, knowing his history of peripheral vascular disease. This failure led to a burn and subsequent infection that required a skin graft for treatment. The actions of the nurse were negligent as they did not meet the expected standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient. This situation does not fit the definition of assault, malpractice, or vicarious liability, making negligence the most appropriate choice.
A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Unstable angina
- C. Acute myocardial infarction
- D. Prinzmetal's angina
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.