Age Specific Patient Care

Age Specific Patient Care Related

Review Age Specific Patient Care related questions and content

A 25-year-old individual was brought by ambulance to the emergency room. The patient's sensorium alternates between clouded and clear, and the patient becomes agitated both physically and verbally when approached. The patient's cognitive impairment is most consistent with:

  • A. Delirium
  • B. Dementia
  • C. Sundown syndrome
  • D. Early-onset Alzheimer disease
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delirium. Delirium is characterized by acute onset, fluctuating course, altered level of consciousness, and cognitive impairment. In this case, the patient's alternating sensorium and agitation suggest an acute confusional state, which is typical of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying medical conditions, medications, or substance abuse.

Summary of other choices:
B: Dementia is a chronic, progressive cognitive decline that does not typically present with acute onset and fluctuating symptoms like delirium.
C: Sundown syndrome refers to worsening of symptoms in the evening and is often seen in patients with dementia, not in this acute and fluctuating presentation.
D: Early-onset Alzheimer's disease is a form of dementia that typically has a more insidious onset and does not present with acute fluctuations in cognition like delirium.

You may also like to solve these questions

A patient receiving risperidone (Risperdal) reports severe muscle stiffness midmorning. During lunch he has difficulty swallowing food and speaking, and when vital signs are taken 30 minutes later, he is noted to be stuporous and diaphoretic, with a temperature of 38.8° C, pulse of 110 beats/min, and blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg. The nurse should suspect ______ and should ______.

  • A. neuroleptic malignant syndrome"¦place him in a cooling blanket and transfer to ICU
  • B. anticholinergic toxicity"¦check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket stat
  • C. relapse of his psychosis"¦administer PRN antipsychotic drugs and notify his physician
  • D. agranulocytosis"¦hold his antipsychotic and draw blood for a complete blood count
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). The patient's symptoms align with NMS, a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. The severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, altered mental status, diaphoresis, and elevated temperature, pulse, and blood pressure are all indicative of NMS. The nurse should suspect NMS and take immediate action by placing the patient in a cooling blanket to lower the temperature and transfer him to the ICU for close monitoring and further management.

Choice B is incorrect because anticholinergic toxicity typically presents with different symptoms such as dry mouth, dilated pupils, and confusion. Choice C is incorrect as there are no signs of a psychotic relapse, and administering more antipsychotic medication could worsen the NMS. Choice D is incorrect as agranulocytosis presents with symptoms like fever and sore throat, not the combination of symptoms seen in this case.

schizophrenia usually involves delusions of persecution and grandeur

  • A. Catatonic
  • B. Disorganized
  • C. Paranoid
  • D. Undifferentiated
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Paranoid schizophrenia is marked by prominent delusions of persecution or grandeur.

A patient is hospitalized for severe depression. Of the medications listed below, the nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about:

  • A. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium).
  • B. Clozapine (Clozaril).
  • C. Sertraline (Zoloft).
  • D. Tacrine (Cognex).
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale:
1. Severe depression is typically treated with antidepressants like Sertraline (Zoloft).
2. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat depression.
3. The nurse should provide teaching on how to take the medication, potential side effects, and monitoring for effectiveness.
4. Other choices (A, B, D) are not typically used as first-line treatment for severe depression and may not be appropriate for this patient.

A community mental health nurse receives a new client for his caseload. The diagnosis of the client is residual schizophrenia. Documentation states that the client has a number of negative symptoms. Which symptom would the nurse expect to assess in the client?

  • A. Bizarre, somatic delusions
  • B. Disorganized speech pattern
  • C. Catatonic posturing
  • D. Emotional blunting
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emotional blunting. In residual schizophrenia, negative symptoms involve deficits in normal emotional responses and behaviors. Emotional blunting refers to a reduction in the intensity of emotional expression, which is commonly seen in clients with residual schizophrenia. This symptom can include a lack of facial expressions, reduced vocal inflections, and overall flat affect.

Choice A (Bizarre, somatic delusions) is incorrect as it refers to a positive symptom of schizophrenia involving distorted beliefs about the body.

Choice B (Disorganized speech pattern) is incorrect as it is characteristic of disorganized schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia.

Choice C (Catatonic posturing) is incorrect as it is a symptom of catatonic schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia.

A woman whose husband physically abuses her mentions to the nurse, 'Someday I'll have to leave him.' Which of the following would be the nurse's best response?

  • A. Yes, you should, before he harms you badly.'
  • B. Could we talk about developing a safety plan?'
  • C. Are you afraid of what your family will say?'
  • D. I don't know why you would stay with him.'
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Could we talk about developing a safety plan?" This response is the best choice as it acknowledges the woman's situation, offers support, and focuses on practical steps to ensure her safety. By suggesting a safety plan, the nurse is addressing the immediate concern of potential harm and empowering the woman to take control of her situation.

Incorrect Choices:
A: This response is too direct and may not take into account the complexities of the woman's situation. It lacks empathy and does not offer a constructive solution.
C: This response shifts the focus away from the woman's safety and onto external factors. It may come across as judgmental and unhelpful.
D: This response is dismissive and fails to acknowledge the seriousness of the situation. It does not offer any support or guidance to the woman in need.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.