A 25 year old patient is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection. * Which of the following drug would be most appropriate to prescribe in treating this patient's illness?
- A. Zanamivir
- B. Lamivudine
- C. Valacyclovir
- D. Cidofovir
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valacyclovir. Valacyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus infections. It is a prodrug of acyclovir, which inhibits viral DNA replication. Zanamivir (A) is used to treat influenza viruses, not herpes. Lamivudine (B) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. Cidofovir (D) is used for cytomegalovirus and other viral infections, but not the first line for herpes. Valacyclovir is the most appropriate choice due to its effectiveness and safety profile in treating herpes simplex virus infections.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is aware of which statement to be true regarding the incidence of testicular cancer?
- A. Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years.
- B. The early symptoms of testicular cancer are pain and induration.
- C. Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer.
- D. The cure rate for testicular cancer is low.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Men with a history of cryptorchidism are at the greatest risk for the development of testicular cancer. This is because cryptorchidism, which is the condition of undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. When the testicles do not descend properly, there is an increased likelihood of cancer development. This statement is true as individuals with cryptorchidism have a higher risk of testicular cancer compared to those without this condition.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Testicular cancer is not the most common cancer in men aged 30 to 50 years. Prostate cancer is more common in this age group.
B: The early symptoms of testicular cancer are not pain and induration. Common symptoms include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
D: The cure rate for testicular cancer is actually high, especially when detected early. This statement is incorrect.
The nurse is inspecting the scrotum and testes of a 43-year-old man. Which finding would require additional follow-up and evaluation?
- A. Skin on the scrotum is taut.
- B. Left testicle hangs lower than the right testicl
- D. Scrotal skin has yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of yellowish 1-cm nodules that are firm and nontender on the scrotal skin could indicate a serious issue such as testicular cancer or a benign condition like sebaceous cysts. Further evaluation is necessary to rule out malignancy or infection.
A: Skin on the scrotum being taut is a normal finding.
B: Left testicle hanging lower than the right is a common anatomical variation, not a cause for concern.
C: The absence of information makes it impossible to determine if this finding requires follow-up.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination, the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) ______ hernia.
- A. Scrotal.
- B. Femoral.
- C. Direct inguinal.
- D. Indirect inguinal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Direct inguinal hernia. In this scenario, the key clues are the painless round swelling close to the pubis, easily reduced when supine, and in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Direct inguinal hernias occur due to weakness in the abdominal wall muscles, often seen in older males with increased intra-abdominal pressure. The hernia protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, typically in the area of the internal inguinal ring. Scrotal hernias (Choice A) present in the scrotum, not close to the pubis. Femoral hernias (Choice B) occur below the inguinal ligament and are more common in females. Indirect inguinal hernias (Choice D) pass through the internal inguinal ring and are more common in young males.
This drug is a pyrophosphate analog which inhibit DNA polymerase and * reverse transcriptase, is used only to treat associated cytomegalovirus infection in AIDS patient.
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Valacyclovir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foscarnet. Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits both DNA polymerase and reverse transcriptase, making it effective against cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections in AIDS patients. Acyclovir (A) and Valacyclovir (B) are antiviral drugs used for herpes infections, not CMV. Amantadine (C) is an antiviral used for influenza, not CMV. Therefore, Foscarnet is the correct choice for treating CMV in AIDS patients.
A patient has been experiencing vaginal bleeding and cramping, which the nurse suspects could be an early sign of a miscarriage. Which of the following should the nurse assess for during this examination?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. High blood pressure.
- C. Weight loss and fatigue.
- D. Changes in breast size or tenderness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss and fatigue. In the context of vaginal bleeding and cramping, weight loss and fatigue are concerning signs that may indicate a potential miscarriage. Weight loss could be due to decreased appetite or nutritional deficiencies associated with the stress of a miscarriage. Fatigue may result from hormonal changes and emotional distress. Assessing for weight loss and fatigue helps the nurse monitor the patient's overall well-being and provide appropriate support.
Choice A (Hyperthyroidism) is incorrect as it is not directly related to the symptoms of vaginal bleeding and cramping suggestive of a possible miscarriage.
Choice B (High blood pressure) is also incorrect as it is not typically associated with early signs of a miscarriage.
Choice D (Changes in breast size or tenderness) is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly related to pregnancy rather than miscarriage.