Nokea
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best?
- A. Treating for both infections is standard due to frequent co-infection.
- B. Antibiotics will cure both infections permanently.
- C. Treatment is only needed if symptoms persist after 72 hours.
- D. Condoms are not effective in preventing these infections.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia and gonorrhea often co-occur, so empirical treatment for both is standard when culture results are pending to prevent complications. Antibiotics treat but do not guarantee a permanent cure, especially if re-infection occurs. Waiting for symptom persistence delays care, and condoms, while not foolproof, reduce transmission risk.
You may also like to solve these questions
A woman is admitted to the hospital for antibiotic therapy for pelvic inflammatory disease. She is in pain, with a rating of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. What comfort measure can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Administer Tylenol immediately
- B. Apply a heating pad to the lower abdomen.
- C. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
- D. Teach the client to increase intake of fluids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position can be delegated to a UAP to help alleviate discomfort. Administering medication, applying a heating pad, and teaching are tasks reserved for the nurse, as they require clinical judgment or specialized training.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Feelings of anger that her partner infected her
- B. Loss stood over the line 2 days
- C. Auroxia and nausea
- D. Chills and a temperature of 101 F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chills and a fever of 101°F suggest a persistent infection, requiring immediate adjustment of antibiotic therapy. Anger is a normal emotional response, and gastrointestinal symptoms like anorexia and nausea are common antibiotic side effects, but they do not warrant urgent action compared to signs of ongoing infection.
A client being treated for syphilis visits the office with a possible allergic reaction to benzathine penicillin G. What abnormal findings would the nurse expect to document? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Red rash
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Heart irregular
- D. Chest tightness
- E. Anxiety
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Allergic reactions to benzathine penicillin G may include rash, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and anxiety, indicating possible anaphylaxis or serum sickness. Heart irregularity is not typically associated with allergic reactions to penicillin.
A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which is a support group.
- A. Gardial protects against all HPV strains.
- B. You are too young to receive the vaccine.
- C. The vaccine is only effective after exposure to HPV.
- D. Condoms provide complete protection against HPV.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gardasil protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are high-risk for cervical cancer and genital warts, but not all strains. The vaccine is recommended for ages 9 to 45, so the client is not too young. It is most effective before exposure, and condoms reduce but do not eliminate HPV transmission risk.
A nurse instructor is teaching a student nurse about the factors that have increased the number of people with sexually transmitted diseases (STD's) seem in practice. Which statement by the student indicates a lack of understanding?
- A. There are improved techniques to diagnose an STD used in practice.
- B. There is increased incidence of sexual abuse and sexual trafficking.
- C. Females feel safe using oral agents rather than a condom as contraception.
- D. The organisms causing STD's are all becoming more virulent.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is no evidence that the organisms that cause STDs are becoming more virulent. Improved diagnostic techniques, increased incidence of sexual abuse and trafficking, and reliance on oral contraceptives without condoms contribute to the rise in STDs, as they reflect real trends or misconceptions.