Nokea
An African-American female with blisters on the vagina is being treated with acyclovir (Zovira) for genital herpes. She is angry at her partner for transmitting the infection. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Encourage the client to engage in sexual activity since she is an medication.
- B. Be sensitive to the clients feelings and refer her to a support group.
- C. Reinforce that the disease can no longer be spread to other partners.
- D. Measure the client that sexual activity will not be painful while on acyclovir.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should be sensitive to the client's emotional distress, as genital herpes can cause feelings of anger and isolation. Referring her to a support group, like the National Herpes Resource Center, helps address these feelings. Encouraging sexual activity or claiming the disease is non-transmissible is incorrect, as herpes remains contagious during outbreaks, and acyclovir does not eliminate pain or transmission risk.
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A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which is a support group.
- A. Gardial protects against all HPV strains.
- B. You are too young to receive the vaccine.
- C. The vaccine is only effective after exposure to HPV.
- D. Condoms provide complete protection against HPV.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gardasil protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are high-risk for cervical cancer and genital warts, but not all strains. The vaccine is recommended for ages 9 to 45, so the client is not too young. It is most effective before exposure, and condoms reduce but do not eliminate HPV transmission risk.
The nurse teaches a client with genital herpes about effective comfort measures. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
- A. Sitz baths three times a day may help ease the pain.
- B. I can use anesthetic sprays or ointments for relief.
- C. Wearing loose clothing can reduce irritation.
- D. I really should try to limit irritation due to the pain.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement about limiting irritation due to pain is vague and suggests a misunderstanding of specific comfort measures. Sitz baths, anesthetic sprays, and loose clothing are appropriate measures to reduce discomfort and irritation from genital herpes lesions.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Feelings of anger that her partner infected her
- B. Loss stood over the line 2 days
- C. Auroxia and nausea
- D. Chills and a temperature of 101 F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chills and a fever of 101°F suggest a persistent infection, requiring immediate adjustment of antibiotic therapy. Anger is a normal emotional response, and gastrointestinal symptoms like anorexia and nausea are common antibiotic side effects, but they do not warrant urgent action compared to signs of ongoing infection.
A 19-year-old college student seeks information from the school's nurse about how to avoid sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) without abstinence as a choice. Which statement by the nurse is best?
- A. Urinating after intercourse will eliminate the risk of infection.
- B. A vaccine can prevent the sexually transmitted by some amount of the human papilloma virus (HPV).
- C. Oral contraception can prevent pregnancy and STDs.
- D. Good handwashing helps prevent infection associated with STDs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The HPV vaccine (Gardasil) protects against high-risk HPV strains, reducing the risk of cervical cancer and genital warts. Urination after intercourse may reduce but does not eliminate infection risk. Oral contraceptives do not prevent STDs, and handwashing, while hygienic, is not a primary STD prevention method.
A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a scale in rash over the palms and soles of the feet and the feel, a client is assessing a client who presents with a scale in syphilis. Which statement of the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Reasure the client that this stage is not infectious unless she is pregnant.
- B. Assess the client that he is not being generalized weakness.
- C. Data gives and further assess the clients, lesions.
- D. Take a history regarding any cardiovascular symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest secondary syphilis, characterized by a rash on the palms and soles due to spirochetes in the bloodstream. Further assessment of lesions is critical to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment. Reassuring about non-infectiousness is incorrect, as secondary syphilis is highly infectious, and cardiovascular symptoms are more relevant in tertiary syphilis.