Nokea
A nurse instructor is teaching a student nurse about the factors that have increased the number of people with sexually transmitted diseases (STD's) seem in practice. Which statement by the student indicates a lack of understanding?
- A. There are improved techniques to diagnose an STD used in practice.
- B. There is increased incidence of sexual abuse and sexual trafficking.
- C. Females feel safe using oral agents rather than a condom as contraception.
- D. The organisms causing STD's are all becoming more virulent.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is no evidence that the organisms that cause STDs are becoming more virulent. Improved diagnostic techniques, increased incidence of sexual abuse and trafficking, and reliance on oral contraceptives without condoms contribute to the rise in STDs, as they reflect real trends or misconceptions.
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A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which is a support group.
- A. Gardial protects against all HPV strains.
- B. You are too young to receive the vaccine.
- C. The vaccine is only effective after exposure to HPV.
- D. Condoms provide complete protection against HPV.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gardasil protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are high-risk for cervical cancer and genital warts, but not all strains. The vaccine is recommended for ages 9 to 45, so the client is not too young. It is most effective before exposure, and condoms reduce but do not eliminate HPV transmission risk.
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which question by the nurse is best?
- A. Do you have a history of sexually transmitted disease?
- B. When was your last sexual encounter?
- C. What did your symptoms begin?
- D. What are the names of your recent sexual partners?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Identifying and treating sexual partners is critical to prevent the spread of Chlamydia and gonorrhea. While history, timing of last encounter, and symptom onset are useful, contacting and treating partners is the priority to break the chain of transmission.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Feelings of anger that her partner infected her
- B. Loss stood over the line 2 days
- C. Auroxia and nausea
- D. Chills and a temperature of 101 F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chills and a fever of 101°F suggest a persistent infection, requiring immediate adjustment of antibiotic therapy. Anger is a normal emotional response, and gastrointestinal symptoms like anorexia and nausea are common antibiotic side effects, but they do not warrant urgent action compared to signs of ongoing infection.
Before marriage, a female client has a blood test drawn for syphilis. The test reveals a positive Venereal infection. What information should the nurse give the client?
- A. Check with your future husband about last sexual activity.
- B. You must determine if you are pregnant at this time.
- C. Submit to a more specific treppmental test to confirm the infection.
- D. Agree to a benzathline penicillin G injection in multiple doses.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive syphilis screening test may be a false positive due to conditions like hepatitis or lupus. A more specific treponemal test, such as the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test, is needed to confirm the diagnosis before treatment. Checking sexual activity or pregnancy status is secondary, and multiple doses of penicillin are not standard for early syphilis.
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best?
- A. Treating for both infections is standard due to frequent co-infection.
- B. Antibiotics will cure both infections permanently.
- C. Treatment is only needed if symptoms persist after 72 hours.
- D. Condoms are not effective in preventing these infections.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia and gonorrhea often co-occur, so empirical treatment for both is standard when culture results are pending to prevent complications. Antibiotics treat but do not guarantee a permanent cure, especially if re-infection occurs. Waiting for symptom persistence delays care, and condoms, while not foolproof, reduce transmission risk.