Nokea
A client being treated for syphilis visits the office with a possible allergic reaction to benzathine penicillin G. What abnormal findings would the nurse expect to document? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Red rash
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Heart irregular
- D. Chest tightness
- E. Anxiety
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
Rationale: Allergic reactions to benzathine penicillin G may include rash, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and anxiety, indicating possible anaphylaxis or serum sickness. Heart irregularity is not typically associated with allergic reactions to penicillin.
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A nurse instructor is teaching a student nurse about the factors that have increased the number of people with sexually transmitted diseases (STD's) seem in practice. Which statement by the student indicates a lack of understanding?
- A. There are improved techniques to diagnose an STD used in practice.
- B. There is increased incidence of sexual abuse and sexual trafficking.
- C. Females feel safe using oral agents rather than a condom as contraception.
- D. The organisms causing STD's are all becoming more virulent.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is no evidence that the organisms that cause STDs are becoming more virulent. Improved diagnostic techniques, increased incidence of sexual abuse and trafficking, and reliance on oral contraceptives without condoms contribute to the rise in STDs, as they reflect real trends or misconceptions.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Feelings of anger that her partner infected her
- B. Loss stood over the line 2 days
- C. Auroxia and nausea
- D. Chills and a temperature of 101 F
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chills and a fever of 101°F suggest a persistent infection, requiring immediate adjustment of antibiotic therapy. Anger is a normal emotional response, and gastrointestinal symptoms like anorexia and nausea are common antibiotic side effects, but they do not warrant urgent action compared to signs of ongoing infection.
A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a scale in rash over the palms and soles of the feet and the feel, a client is assessing a client who presents with a scale in syphilis. Which statement of the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Reasure the client that this stage is not infectious unless she is pregnant.
- B. Assess the client that he is not being generalized weakness.
- C. Data gives and further assess the clients, lesions.
- D. Take a history regarding any cardiovascular symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest secondary syphilis, characterized by a rash on the palms and soles due to spirochetes in the bloodstream. Further assessment of lesions is critical to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment. Reassuring about non-infectiousness is incorrect, as secondary syphilis is highly infectious, and cardiovascular symptoms are more relevant in tertiary syphilis.
Before marriage, a female client has a blood test drawn for syphilis. The test reveals a positive Venereal infection. What information should the nurse give the client?
- A. Check with your future husband about last sexual activity.
- B. You must determine if you are pregnant at this time.
- C. Submit to a more specific treppmental test to confirm the infection.
- D. Agree to a benzathline penicillin G injection in multiple doses.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive syphilis screening test may be a false positive due to conditions like hepatitis or lupus. A more specific treponemal test, such as the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test, is needed to confirm the diagnosis before treatment. Checking sexual activity or pregnancy status is secondary, and multiple doses of penicillin are not standard for early syphilis.
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best?
- A. Treating for both infections is standard due to frequent co-infection.
- B. Antibiotics will cure both infections permanently.
- C. Treatment is only needed if symptoms persist after 72 hours.
- D. Condoms are not effective in preventing these infections.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia and gonorrhea often co-occur, so empirical treatment for both is standard when culture results are pending to prevent complications. Antibiotics treat but do not guarantee a permanent cure, especially if re-infection occurs. Waiting for symptom persistence delays care, and condoms, while not foolproof, reduce transmission risk.