A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Place the child in a mist tent. This intervention is crucial in managing a child with croup, which presents with stridor, fever, and respiratory distress. Placing the child in a mist tent provides humidified air, which can help reduce airway inflammation and ease breathing. It is the first-line treatment for croup and should be initiated promptly to relieve the child's symptoms. Obtaining a sputum culture (B) is not necessary in this scenario as the child's presentation is consistent with croup, which is a clinical diagnosis. Preparing for an emergent tracheostomy (C) is an invasive procedure that should only be considered if other treatments fail. Examining the child's oropharynx (D) can be helpful but is not the most urgent intervention in this situation.
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A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate because the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. Carbohydrates will quickly raise the blood sugar level. Glucagon injection is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Providing a snack with protein is not the immediate action needed to raise the blood sugar rapidly. Encouraging rest is not effective in treating hypoglycemia.
A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. Use manual pressure to express urine
- B. Perform the Crede maneuver
- C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
- D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. This is the appropriate instruction for a client with a flaccid bladder on a bladder training program. The Crede maneuver involves applying manual pressure on the bladder to assist with urine elimination. This technique helps to promote bladder emptying and prevent urinary retention.
A: Using manual pressure to express urine is not recommended as it can lead to urinary tract infections and damage to the bladder.
C: Applying an external urinary drainage device is not part of bladder training and does not address the issue of bladder emptying.
D: Taking a warm sitz bath twice a day does not directly address the client's flaccid bladder and is not a component of bladder training.
The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
- B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Stop the infusion
- D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion (Choice C). Oliguria and a high serum potassium level indicate the client is at risk for hyperkalemia, which can be exacerbated by the potassium chloride infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further elevation of potassium levels and potential cardiac complications.
Choice A (Notify the healthcare provider) is not the first action as immediate intervention is needed to prevent harm. Choice B (Decrease the rate of the IV infusion) is not sufficient to address the immediate risk of hyperkalemia. Choice D (Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is not appropriate as the first action and should only be considered after stabilizing the client's condition.
What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
- A. Bladder palpation
- B. Inspection of the mouth
- C. Blood glucose monitoring
- D. Auscultation of breath sounds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia as a common untoward effect. By inspecting the mouth regularly, the nurse can assess for signs of this side effect such as swollen or bleeding gums. Bladder palpation (A) is not relevant to monitoring phenytoin side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (C) is not typically associated with phenytoin use. Auscultation of breath sounds (D) is not directly related to monitoring for phenytoin side effects.
Which instruction should the nurse provide to an elderly client who is taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker?
- A. Wear long-sleeved clothing when outdoors
- B. Report the onset of sore throat
- C. Eat plenty of potassium-rich food
- D. Change the position slowly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Change the position slowly. Elderly clients taking both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers are at risk for orthostatic hypotension. Instructing them to change positions slowly helps prevent sudden drops in blood pressure and dizziness upon standing up.
A: Wearing long-sleeved clothing when outdoors is not directly related to the medications mentioned.
B: Reporting the onset of a sore throat is important for monitoring potential side effects of medications but not specific to the combination of ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers.
C: Eating plenty of potassium-rich foods is not typically contraindicated for clients taking ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, but it is not the most essential instruction compared to preventing orthostatic hypotension.
In summary, changing position slowly is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is a common side effect of these medications in elderly clients.