Nokea
An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, 'I've been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I'll let you see the doctor next because you've waited so long.
- C. I'm doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy and acknowledges the client's feelings without admitting fault. By saying "I understand you are frustrated with the wait time," the nurse validates the client's emotions and shows a willingness to listen and address concerns. This response can help de-escalate the situation and build rapport.
Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't directly address the client's emotions. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the client based on their anger rather than medical need. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as dismissive of the client's feelings and lacks empathy.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic before meals. Administering an antiemetic before meals helps prevent and manage nausea associated with chemotherapy by blocking receptors that trigger nausea and vomiting. This intervention targets the root cause of the symptom. Providing frequent mouth care (B) may help with taste changes but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (C) and offering clear liquids (D) may be helpful for some clients, but they do not specifically target nausea caused by chemotherapy.
The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?
- A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
- B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
- C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
- D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection. This assignment is the best choice for the new graduate nurse because a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection is likely stable and requires minimal immediate interventions. This client would benefit from the new nurse's routine care and monitoring skills, allowing the nurse to focus on completing tasks efficiently.
Option B: With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration requires close monitoring and frequent adjustments in insulin dosages, which may be challenging for a new nurse without adequate supervision.
Option C: Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments demands critical thinking skills and quick decision-making abilities, which may overwhelm a new nurse who lacks experience in handling such cases.
Option D: Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol involves complex medication management and monitoring for potential complications, which may be beyond the scope of a new nurse's comfort level without proper guidance.
The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
- B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Stop the infusion
- D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion (Choice C). Oliguria and a high serum potassium level indicate the client is at risk for hyperkalemia, which can be exacerbated by the potassium chloride infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further elevation of potassium levels and potential cardiac complications.
Choice A (Notify the healthcare provider) is not the first action as immediate intervention is needed to prevent harm. Choice B (Decrease the rate of the IV infusion) is not sufficient to address the immediate risk of hyperkalemia. Choice D (Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is not appropriate as the first action and should only be considered after stabilizing the client's condition.
While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the head of the client's bed
- B. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
- C. Measure the length of the apneic periods
- D. Suction the client's oropharynx
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measure the length of the apneic periods. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations and guiding further interventions. By measuring the length of apneic periods, the nurse can determine the duration of respiratory pauses and their impact on oxygenation. This information helps in deciding the appropriate treatment, such as administering supplemental oxygen or notifying the healthcare provider. Elevating the head of the bed (choice A) can help with breathing but does not address the root cause. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) is important but does not directly address the apneic periods. Suctioning the oropharynx (choice D) is not indicated unless there is an airway obstruction.
The client diagnosed with a right fractured femur has skeletal traction applied to the right femur. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform passive range of motion to the right leg
- B. Remove skeletal weights every shift to assess right leg
- C. Turn frequently from prone to supine positions
- D. Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain skeletal pin sites and assess for signs of infection. This is important to prevent complications like infection, which can be severe. The nurse should regularly assess the pin sites for redness, swelling, or discharge. This intervention ensures early detection and prompt treatment of any signs of infection, reducing the risk of serious complications.
Choice A is incorrect because performing passive range of motion to the right leg may disrupt the traction and interfere with the healing process.
Choice B is incorrect because removing skeletal weights every shift can lead to loss of traction, compromising the fracture alignment and healing process.
Choice C is incorrect because turning the client frequently from prone to supine positions may also disrupt the traction and increase the risk of complications.