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A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator. This is the appropriate action for a college student with symptoms of a vaginal infection with a 'cottage cheese' appearance discharge, which is indicative of a yeast infection (most likely caused by Candida). Nystatin is an antifungal medication effective against Candida, hence addressing the root cause of the infection. It is essential to start with the treatment first to alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying infection.
C: Performing a glucose measurement is not necessary at this stage as the symptoms suggest a yeast infection, not diabetes.
D: Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this case as the symptoms are indicative of a yeast infection, not an STD.
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The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign to this newly graduated practical nurse?
- A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
- B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
- C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
- D. Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection. This assignment is the best choice for the new graduate nurse because a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection is likely stable and requires minimal immediate interventions. This client would benefit from the new nurse's routine care and monitoring skills, allowing the nurse to focus on completing tasks efficiently.
Option B: With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration requires close monitoring and frequent adjustments in insulin dosages, which may be challenging for a new nurse without adequate supervision.
Option C: Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments demands critical thinking skills and quick decision-making abilities, which may overwhelm a new nurse who lacks experience in handling such cases.
Option D: Receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol involves complex medication management and monitoring for potential complications, which may be beyond the scope of a new nurse's comfort level without proper guidance.
The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the laboratory results
- B. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Stop the infusion
- D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion (Choice C). Oliguria and a high serum potassium level indicate the client is at risk for hyperkalemia, which can be exacerbated by the potassium chloride infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further elevation of potassium levels and potential cardiac complications.
Choice A (Notify the healthcare provider) is not the first action as immediate intervention is needed to prevent harm. Choice B (Decrease the rate of the IV infusion) is not sufficient to address the immediate risk of hyperkalemia. Choice D (Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is not appropriate as the first action and should only be considered after stabilizing the client's condition.
When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. When did your symptoms first begin?
- B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
- C. Do you have any changes in vision?
- D. Have you experienced any seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Have you experienced any seizures? This question is crucial because seizures can be a common symptom of a brain tumor. By asking about seizures, the nurse can gather important information about the client's condition and potential complications. Seizures can also indicate the location and size of the tumor.
A: When did your symptoms first begin? This question is important, but seizures are more specific to brain tumor assessment.
B: Can you describe the pain and how it feels? Pain can vary and may not always be present with a brain tumor.
C: Do you have any changes in vision? Vision changes can occur but may not be as indicative of a brain tumor as seizures.
In summary, asking about seizures is crucial for immediate assessment and management of a client with a brain tumor, as it can provide valuable insight into the client's condition.
A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates increased concentration of urine, a sign of dehydration.
Step 2: In dehydration, the body conserves water, leading to concentrated urine.
Step 3: The child's symptoms (increased stools, liquid consistency, fever, vomiting) suggest dehydration.
Step 4: Other choices (A: occult blood, B: distention, D: hyperactive bowel sounds) are not specific to dehydration.
Summary: Elevated urine specific gravity is key as it directly reflects dehydration, unlike the other choices which are not specific indicators of dehydration.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client¢â‚¬â„¢s teaching plan?
- A. Avoid all forms of sugar
- B. Check blood glucose levels once a week
- C. Rotate insulin injection sites
- D. Monitor urine ketone levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rotate insulin injection sites. This instruction is crucial to prevent lipohypertrophy, which can lead to inconsistent insulin absorption. By rotating injection sites, the client ensures proper insulin absorption and prevents complications. Checking blood glucose levels once a week (B) is not frequent enough for proper diabetes management. Avoiding all forms of sugar (A) is an outdated approach, as moderation is key. Monitoring urine ketone levels (D) is not as reliable as blood ketone testing for assessing diabetic ketoacidosis risk.