A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, the nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?
- A. Anterior-posterior x-ray
- B. Ultrasound
- C. Lumbar puncture
- D. MRI
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: MRI. MRI is the most appropriate test for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor as it provides detailed images of soft tissues, including the spinal cord and surrounding structures. It can accurately identify the location, size, and extent of the tumor. Anterior-posterior x-ray (A) is not as detailed and may not clearly show soft tissue abnormalities. Ultrasound (B) is not typically used for imaging the spinal cord and may not provide sufficient information. Lumbar puncture (C) is used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not helpful for diagnosing spinal cord compression from a tumor.
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A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?
- A. 75 cells/mm3 of blood
- B. 200 cells/mm3 of blood
- C. 325 cells/mm3 of blood
- D. 450 cells/mm3 of blood
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS.
Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated.
Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?
- A. Metastasis
- B. Risk for stroke
- C. Emotional and personality changes
- D. Pathologic bone fractures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Emotional and personality changes. In Huntington disease, neurodegeneration affects the brain, leading to changes in behavior, emotions, and personality. These changes are characteristic of the disease progression. Metastasis (A) refers to the spread of cancer, which is not associated with Huntington disease. Risk for stroke (B) is not a typical manifestation of Huntington disease. Pathologic bone fractures (D) are not directly related to the primary symptoms of Huntington disease. Thus, addressing emotional and personality changes is crucial in providing anticipatory guidance for individuals with Huntington disease.
A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?
- A. Prolactinoma
- B. Angioma
- C. Glioma
- D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)producing adenoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prolactinoma. Hypogonadism is often associated with decreased testosterone levels, which can be caused by excessive prolactin secretion from a prolactinoma. Prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to decreased production of testosterone. Angioma, glioma, and ACTH-producing adenoma are not typically associated with hypogonadism. Angiomas are benign tumors of blood vessels, gliomas are tumors of the brain or spinal cord, and ACTH-producing adenomas are associated with Cushing's disease, not hypogonadism.
The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?
- A. Salvage surgery
- B. Palliative surgery
- C. Prophylactic surgery
- D. Reconstructive surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prophylactic surgery. Prophylactic surgery involves removing tissue at risk of developing cancer to prevent the occurrence of cancer. In this case, the patient has a family history of breast cancer and has tested positive for a breast tumor marker, indicating a high risk of developing breast cancer. By opting for a bilateral mastectomy, the patient is proactively removing breast tissue to reduce her risk of developing breast cancer.
Salvage surgery (A) is performed to remove cancer that has recurred after initial treatment. Palliative surgery (B) aims to alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life but is not curative. Reconstructive surgery (D) is performed to restore the appearance and function of a body part after cancer treatment but is not the primary purpose in this scenario.
A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?
- A. Prepare an advance directive.
- B. Designate a most responsible physician (MRP) early in the course of the disease.
- C. Collaborate with representatives from the Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Association.
- D. Ensure that witnesses are present when he provides instruction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an advance directive. This allows the patient to document their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring their wishes are known and honored as the disease progresses. It provides clear instructions for healthcare providers and family members, reducing potential conflicts and ensuring the patient's autonomy is respected.
Choice B is incorrect as designating an MRP focuses on medical decision-making but may not capture the full range of the patient's care preferences. Choice C involves collaboration with an organization, which may not fully represent the patient's individual wishes. Choice D is incorrect as witnesses are not always necessary for providing instructions, and the presence of witnesses does not guarantee that the patient's wishes will be followed accurately.
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