A 42-year-old woman with a history of migraine headaches is requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the Nurse Practitioner prescribe?
- A. Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
- B. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
- C. Verapamil (Verelan)
- D. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amitriptyline is used off-label for migraine prophylaxis.
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When assessing a patient's condition, which of the following scenarios would be considered critical trauma?
- A. An elderly woman has fallen and has broken her collarbone.
- B. A 32-year-old man has cut his hand with a kitchen knife.
- C. A child has sustained a fracture of his femur.
- D. A teenager has fallen from a height of greater than 20 feet.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fall from a height greater than 20 feet is considered critical trauma.
A patient presents with an elongated head with bony prominence of the forehead, nose, and lower jaw. These facial features could be suggestive of:
- A. Nephrotic syndrome
- B. Acromegaly
- C. Cushing’s syndrome
- D. Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acromegaly is characterized by enlargement of bones and soft tissues, leading to features like a prominent jaw and forehead.
Barriers to detecting elder mistreatment include all except:
- A. The tendency for many older adults to falsely claim they are being abused
- B. The fear that one might be institutionalized if one admits to being abused
- C. The shame that older adults feel if they have been a victim of abuse
- D. The difficulty that healthcare providers have making a determination regarding abuse if the victim has dementia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Many older adults do not falsely claim abuse, so this is not a significant barrier.
The nurse practitioner palpates an enlarged right epitrochlear lymph node in a 30-year-old patient. The Nurse Practitioner should assess the patient's:
- A. Throat, face, and right ear
- B. Neck and supraclavicular region
- C. Right forearm and hand
- D. Right groin and abdomen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enlarged epitrochlear nodes are associated with infections or conditions in the hand or forearm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for trichomoniasis in a non-pregnant woman?
- A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- B. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
- C. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- D. Clotrimazole (Lotrimin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metronidazole is the first-line treatment for trichomoniasis.