Nokea
A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
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The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Neutrophil count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Hemoglobin level.' Pallor of the skin and nail beds is a sign of anemia, which is characterized by a low hemoglobin level. Anemia is a condition where there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Checking the hemoglobin level would help confirm the presence and severity of anemia, guiding further diagnostic and treatment interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because platelet count, neutrophil count, and white blood cell count are not typically associated with the pallor of the skin and nail beds, which are more indicative of an underlying anemic condition.
The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Yellow-tinged sclerae
- B. Shiny, smooth tongue
- C. Numbness of the extremities
- D. Gum bleeding and tenderness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Numbness of the extremities. Numbness of the extremities is a common finding in patients with pernicious anemia, which is caused by cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency. This deficiency affects the peripheral nervous system, leading to neurological symptoms like numbness and tingling in the extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Yellow-tinged sclerae is more indicative of jaundice or liver dysfunction, a shiny smooth tongue is seen in conditions like glossitis, and gum bleeding and tenderness are associated with periodontal disease or vitamin C deficiency, not pernicious anemia.
The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy
- B. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion
- C. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band
- D. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before a transfusion as their education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would then report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). Option A is typically a nursing responsibility to ensure patient safety and avoid errors in patient identification. Option C involves cross-checking important details and ensuring accuracy, which is usually performed by nursing staff to prevent errors. Option D requires monitoring for potential adverse reactions during the transfusion, which is a nursing responsibility due to the need for assessment and intervention in case of complications.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heparin. An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds indicates a prolonged time, which is associated with heparin administration. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to an increased aPTT. Aspirin (choice A) affects platelet aggregation and does not directly impact aPTT. Warfarin (choice C) affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade and is monitored using the international normalized ratio (INR), not aPTT. Erythropoietin (choice D) is not related to coagulation parameters.
The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
- A. Monocytes 4%
- B. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 168,000/μL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/μL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A low percentage of monocytes can indicate a viral infection. This is crucial information to communicate as it suggests a specific type of infection that may require targeted treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to an infectious process and are within normal ranges, so they are not as urgent to communicate to the healthcare provider in this context.