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A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperthyroidism. In this case, the low TSH and high free T4 levels indicate overproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Low TSH is a result of negative feedback due to high T4 levels. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in excess thyroid hormone production. Other choices are incorrect because hypothyroidism would show high TSH levels, thyroiditis typically presents with thyroid tenderness and inflammation, and thyroid cancer usually does not cause these hormonal imbalances.
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A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Acute pancreatitis
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's symptoms of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, along with nausea, vomiting, and a history of heavy alcohol use, are classic for acute pancreatitis. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels further support this diagnosis, as they are key markers of pancreatic inflammation. Acute cholecystitis (A) typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. Peptic ulcer disease (B) is characterized by burning epigastric pain that improves with food intake. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (D) presents with heartburn and regurgitation, not the severe symptoms seen in this case.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin affects the clotting process by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring PT helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and prevent complications like bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but not directly affected by warfarin. Hemoglobin level (C) and white blood cell count (D) are not typically affected by warfarin therapy.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid green leafy vegetables.
- B. Take aspirin for headaches.
- C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use a soft-bristled toothbrush. Patients on warfarin are at risk for bleeding due to its anticoagulant effect. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding and injury to the gums, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Avoiding green leafy vegetables (choice A) is not necessary, as consistent intake is key for warfarin dosing. Taking aspirin (choice B) can increase the risk of bleeding. Limiting fluid intake (choice D) is not indicated in this case.
What is/are the possible cause(s) of acute pancreatitis in this patient?
- A. HIV
- B. Cytomegalovirus
- C. Dideoxyinosine (ddI)
- D. Pentamidine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in immunocompromised patients. The virus can infect the pancreas leading to inflammation. HIV (A) can also cause pancreatitis, but it is typically due to opportunistic infections like CMV rather than the virus itself. Dideoxyinosine (ddI) (C) and Pentamidine (D) are medications that can cause pancreatitis, but they are not the primary cause in this case.
A 32-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of an intermittent burning sensation in the epigastrium that is sometimes related to eating. She has heard about bacteria that can cause gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has had no change in her weight and denies dysphagia. Her laboratory tests are normal. Which of the following would you recommend?
- A. Serum qualitative test for H. pylori
- B. Refer for endoscopy
- C. Obtain an upper GI series
- D. Treat her for H. pylori infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Given the symptoms of epigastric burning, testing for H. pylori is appropriate as it is a common cause of such symptoms.
2. The serum qualitative test for H. pylori can detect the presence of the bacteria in the patient's system.
3. If positive, treatment for H. pylori (such as antibiotics) would be indicated.
4. Referral for endoscopy or upper GI series is not the initial step as they are more invasive and costly.
Summary:
- A: Correct, as it targets the potential cause of the symptoms.
- B: Not recommended initially, as it is more invasive and not necessary as the first step.
- C: Not recommended initially, as it is less specific for H. pylori detection.
- D: Premature without confirming the presence of H. pylori.