Nokea
A 55-year-old client with symptoms of osteoarthritis asks which form of exercise would be most beneficial. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Walking.
- B. Running.
- C. Swimming.
- D. Weight lifting.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Swimming.' Swimming is a low-impact exercise that helps maintain joint mobility and reduce pain in clients with osteoarthritis. Unlike running or weight lifting, swimming is gentle on the joints, making it an ideal choice for individuals with osteoarthritis. Walking can be beneficial too, but swimming is often preferred due to its low-impact nature. Running and weight lifting may exacerbate joint pain and should be avoided by individuals with osteoarthritis.
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A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
- A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
- B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
- C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
- D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?
- A. Milk
- B. Apples
- C. Carrots
- D. Rice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.
Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement when caring for an older client who is legally blind?
- A. Keep the room well-lit at all times.
- B. Speak to the client each time the nurse enters the room.
- C. Ensure the client wears glasses at all times.
- D. Provide written instructions in large print.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to speak to the client each time the nurse enters the room. This intervention is crucial for orienting and reassuring the client, promoting safety, and facilitating communication. Keeping the room well-lit (Choice A) can be helpful but is not as essential as direct verbal communication. Ensuring the client wears glasses (Choice C) may not be feasible or necessary for someone who is legally blind. Providing written instructions in large print (Choice D) is not effective for a client with visual impairments.
The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Elevated serum amylase
- B. Decreased serum bilirubin
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Decreased alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase is the most indicative laboratory result of acute pancreatitis. In this condition, the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the leakage of amylase and lipase into the bloodstream. Elevated serum amylase levels are a classic finding in acute pancreatitis. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Decreased serum bilirubin, increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and decreased alkaline phosphatase levels are not specific markers for acute pancreatitis.
Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
- A. Every 2 months
- B. Every 4 months
- C. Every 6 months
- D. Every 8 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.