The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?
- A. Experiences an elevation in temperature.
- B. Sleeps on the left side.
- C. Cries vigorously.
- D. Eats.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cries vigorously. When the child cries vigorously, it increases the pressure in the right ventricle, allowing unoxygenated blood to enter the circulating volume, leading to cyanosis. This occurs due to the shunting of blood from the right side of the heart to the left side through the ventricular septal defect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly impact the pressure in the right ventricle, which is crucial in causing cyanosis in this scenario.
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A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Review the healthcare worker's history for possible exposure to TB.
- B. Instruct the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test in 1 week.
- C. Refer the healthcare worker to a healthcare provider for isoniazid (INH) therapy.
- D. Document negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.
In planning care for a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, which problem is most important to include in the plan of care?
- A. Risk for infection.
- B. Risk for falls.
- C. Impaired skin integrity.
- D. Activity intolerance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for falls. In a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, the most crucial problem to address is the risk for falls. Hypovolemic shock can result in dizziness and weakness, making the client prone to falling. Preventing falls is essential to avoid further injury or complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the top priority in this scenario. While infection, impaired skin integrity, and activity intolerance are important concerns, preventing falls takes precedence due to the immediate risk of injury associated with hypovolemic shock.
The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Invite friends over regularly to share meal times
- B. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids between meals
- C. Coach the client to make an intentional effort to swallow
- D. Talk to the healthcare provider about prescribing an appetite stimulant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.
When selecting patient problems for the 4-year-old child with nephrosis, what should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Impaired body image
- B. Skin impairment
- C. Nutritional deficit
- D. Injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Skin impairment. Nephrosis is characterized by gross edema, making skin care a priority. Skin impairment can result from the edema and needs close monitoring and management. While nutritional deficit and injury are important considerations in patient care, they are not the priority when dealing with a child with nephrosis. Impaired body image is not typically a priority in the immediate care of a young child with nephrosis.
Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
- A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
- C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
- D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.