Nokea
A 55-year-old postmenopausal female patient presents to the family practice clinic for her annual examination. The nurse notes that the patient has lost inch in height. Upon further investigation, the nurse discovers that the patient has a slow-healing fracture of the left radius. What screening will most likely be initiated at this time for the patient?
- A. Assessment for domestic violence
- B. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan
- C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
- D. Serum levels of calcium and vitamin D
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the postmenopausal female patient who has lost height and has a slow-healing fracture of the left radius presents with concerning factors for osteoporosis. The most appropriate screening to initiate in this case would be a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. DEXA scan is the gold standard for diagnosing osteoporosis by measuring bone mineral density. Given the patient's age, postmenopausal status, height loss, and fracture history, assessing bone health through a DEXA scan is crucial to determine the presence of osteoporosis and guide appropriate management and treatment strategies.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is providing education to the patient that is receiving a bisphosphate medication for osteoporosis. Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan to reduce side effects and enhance absorption while taking bisphosphates? Select all that apply.
- A. Take the medication with a small meal at the same time
- B. Take the medication with at least 8 oz. of water.
- C. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking a dos
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Take the medication with a small meal at the same time: Bisphosphonate medications should be taken with a small meal rather than on an empty stomach to enhance absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
While teaching an Asian patient regarding prenatal care, the nurse notes that the patient refuses to make eye contact. Which is the most likely cause for this behavior?
- A. A submissive attitude
- B. Lack of understanding
- C. Embarrassment about the subject
- D. Cultural beliefs about eye contact
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In many Asian cultures, avoiding eye contact can be a sign of respect, modesty, or a way to show deference to authority figures. Making direct eye contact during a conversation, especially with someone in a position of authority like a healthcare provider, can be seen as disrespectful or confrontational. Understanding and respecting these cultural beliefs is crucial when providing care to patients from diverse backgrounds. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these cultural differences and adjust their communication styles accordingly to ensure effective and culturally sensitive care.
A nurse who works in the emergency department (ED) is assigned to a patient who is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding at 12 weeks’ gestation. An ultrasound has confirmed the absence of a fetal heart rate, and the patient is scheduled for a dilation and evacuation of the pregnancy. The nurse refuses to provide any further care for this patient based on moral principles. What is the nurse manager’s initial response to the nurse?
- A. “I recall you sharing that information in your interview. I will arrange for another nurse to take report on this patient.”
- B. “Because we are shorthanded today, you have to continue to provide care. There is no one else available to provide care for this patient.”
- C. “I understand your point of view. You were hired to work here in the ED so you had to know this situation was possible.”
- D. “Abandonment is a serious issue. I have to advise you to continue to provide care for this patient.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse manager's initial response should prioritize patient care and safety. In this situation, the patient requires urgent medical attention due to heavy vaginal bleeding and the need for a dilation and evacuation procedure. The nurse's refusal to provide care based on personal moral principles can be considered as patient abandonment, which is a serious ethical and legal issue in healthcare. The nurse manager must advise the nurse to continue providing care for the patient to ensure that the patient's needs are met and to prevent harm resulting from abandonment. The nurse manager should also address the nurse's concerns separately through appropriate channels, such as discussing ethical considerations, providing support, and exploring options for accommodation or transfer if necessary.
Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the professional nurse?
- A. Administering oral analgesics
- B. Requesting diagnostic studies
- C. Teaching the patient perineal care
- D. Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oral analgesics is an independent function of the professional nurse. Independent nursing interventions are those that a nurse is licensed to initiate based on their knowledge and skills without needing an order from a healthcare provider. Nurses are educated and trained in medication administration, including oral analgesics, and can independently assess the need for and safely administer them within their scope of practice. While requesting diagnostic studies, teaching perineal care, and providing wound care are essential nursing interventions, they typically require some form of healthcare provider's order or supervision, making them more interdependent activities.
What hormonal medication can be used in a premenopausal patient without the concurrent use of ovarian suppression?
- A. letrozole (Femara)
- B. exemestane (Aromasin)
- C. elacestrant (Orserdu)
- D. tamoxifen (Soltamox)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tamoxifen is a hormonal medication that can be used in premenopausal patients without the concurrent use of ovarian suppression. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that acts by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, thereby inhibiting the growth of hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells. Tamoxifen is commonly prescribed for hormone receptor-positive breast cancer in both premenopausal and postmenopausal women. Unlike aromatase inhibitors (e.g., letrozole and exemestane) which require ovarian suppression in premenopausal patients, tamoxifen can be used as monotherapy in premenopausal patients due to its different mechanism of action. Elacestrant is a selective estrogen receptor degrader (SERD) and not commonly used in clinical practice for this indication.