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A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for the assessment of redness and discharge from the eye and is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. What is the most important information to discuss with the parents and child?
- A. Handwashing can prevent the spread of the disease to others.
- B. The importance of compliance with antibiotic therapy
- C. Signs and symptoms of complications, such as meningitis and septicemia
- D. The likely need for surgery to prevent scarring of the conjunctiva
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of viral conjunctivitis, which is highly contagious.
Step 2: Children often touch their eyes and then surfaces, aiding in disease transmission.
Step 3: Educating parents and the child on proper hand hygiene can help contain the infection.
Step 4: Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, so compliance is not necessary.
Step 5: Complications like meningitis and septicemia are extremely rare with viral conjunctivitis.
Step 6: Surgery is not indicated for viral conjunctivitis, as it is a self-limiting condition.
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Which types of nurses make the best communicatorswith patients?
- A. Those who learn effective psychomotor skills
- B. Those who develop critical thinking skills
- C. Those who like different kinds of people
- D. Those who maintain perceptual biases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Those who develop critical thinking skills. Critical thinking skills enable nurses to assess situations, analyze information, and communicate effectively with patients. By using critical thinking, nurses can tailor their communication style to each patient's needs, leading to better understanding and rapport.
A: Learning effective psychomotor skills is important but does not directly correlate with being a good communicator.
C: Liking different kinds of people is beneficial for interpersonal relationships, but it does not necessarily make one a better communicator.
D: Maintaining perceptual biases hinders effective communication as it can lead to misunderstandings and barriers in the communication process.
A nurse is caring for a patient who just underwentan intravenous pyelography that revealed a renal calculus obstructing the left ureter. What is the nurse’sfirstpriorityin caring for this patient?
- A. Turn the patient on the right side to alleviate pressure on the left kidney.
- B. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake to flush the obstruction.
- C. Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing.
- D. Administer narcotic medications to the patient for pain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing. The rationale is as follows:
1. Renal calculus obstruction can lead to complications such as infection, so monitoring for fever is crucial.
2. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the procedure.
3. Difficulty breathing may signal a severe reaction or complications.
Summary:
A: Turning the patient on the right side does not directly address the urgent need to monitor for potential complications.
B: While fluid intake is important, it is not the immediate priority when the patient is at risk of developing complications.
D: Administering narcotic medications may be necessary for pain relief but does not address the potential emergent issues related to the obstruction.
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
- A. Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection.
- B. The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse.
- C. Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately.
- D. The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective.
Explanation of other choices:
B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior.
C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.
D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
- A. Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
- B. Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone (SIADH)
- C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial.
Summary of other choices:
B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients.
C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient’s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Stop the infusion of magnesium.
- B. Assess the patient’s respiratory rate.
- C. Assess the patient’s deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Notify the health care provider of the magnesium level.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.