Nokea
A 60-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is treated with pioglitazone. Which of the following phrases summarizes best this drug's main mechanism of action?
- A. Blocks intestinal carbohydrate absorption
- B. Causes glycosuria (increased renal glucose excretion)
- C. Increases hepatic gluconeogenesis
- D. Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pioglitazone enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues like muscle and fat via PPAR-gamma activation.
You may also like to solve these questions
There is strong evidence to support that adequate vitamin C intake prevents:
- A. The common cold
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Scurvy
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Adequate vitamin C prevents scurvy, a deficiency disease, but does not prevent colds or cancer.
To reduce potential adverse effects, patients taking a peripherally acting alpha1 antagonist should do all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Take the dose at bedtime
- B. Sit up slowly and dangle their feet before standing
- C. Monitor their blood pressure and skip a dose if the pressure is less than 120/80
- D. Weigh daily and report weight gain of greater than 2 pounds in one day
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Skipping doses based on blood pressure is not recommended; it risks uncontrolled hypertension.
Decongestants such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed):
- A. Are Schedule III drugs in all states
- B. Should not be prescribed or recommended for children under 4 years of age
- C. Are effective in treating the congestion children experience with the common cold
- D. May cause drowsiness in patients of all ages
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pseudoephedrine is unsafe for children under 4 due to serious side effects; it's not Schedule III , variably effective in kids , or typically sedating .
A physician has ordered intramuscular (IM) injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain in a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware this drug has a high abuse potential. Under what category would morphine be classified?
- A. Schedule I
- B. Schedule II
- C. Schedule III
- D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics with a high abuse potential are classified as Schedule II drugs because of severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than II and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.
When reviewing information about the Orphan Drug Program, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. The program encourages the development and marketing of products to treat rare diseases.
- B. The program grants provisional approval with a written commitment from the drug company to formally demonstrate client benefits.
- C. The program provides for incentives, such as research grants, protocol assistance, and special tax credits, to develop products to treat rare diseases.
- D. The program grants 7 years of exclusive marketing rights to the manufacturer if approved.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Orphan Drug Program encourages the development and marketing of products used to treat rare diseases. The program provides incentives to encourage manufacturers to develop orphan drugs, and if approved, the manufacturer has 7 years of exclusive marketing rights. Accelerated programs involve provisional approval and approval based on preliminary evidence.