Nokea
When prescribing NSAIDS, a complete drug history should be conducted as NSAIDs interact with these drugs:
- A. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor
- B. Combined oral contraceptives
- C. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine
- D. Warfarin, an anticoagulant
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: NSAIDs increase bleeding risk with warfarin; interactions with PPIs or contraceptives are less significant.
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A 60-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is treated with pioglitazone. Which of the following phrases summarizes best this drug's main mechanism of action?
- A. Blocks intestinal carbohydrate absorption
- B. Causes glycosuria (increased renal glucose excretion)
- C. Increases hepatic gluconeogenesis
- D. Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pioglitazone enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues like muscle and fat via PPAR-gamma activation.
The MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because:
- A. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine
- B. There is a risk of the pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy
- C. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome
- D. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: MMR (live vaccine) risks fetal congenital rubella syndrome ; pregnancy contraindicates it, not immunity or encephalopathy .
A nurse is teaching a client who has angina how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. The nurse should include which of the following instructions?
- A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
- B. Rub the ointment directly into your skin until it is no longer visible.
- C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
- D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Removing the prior dose prevents overdose and ensures accurate dosing.
Binding of drugs to albumin is irreversible.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: False; binding to albumin is reversible, allowing drugs to dissociate and become active or available for elimination.
Which of the following drugs is considered a first-generation cephalosporin?
- A. Cefepime
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin, effective against Gram-positive bacteria, unlike cefepime (fourth) or ceftriaxone (third).