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A 60-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hepatitis C
- B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Wilson's disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is B: Primary biliary cirrhosis. This condition commonly presents with fatigue, pruritus, jaundice, elevated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase levels in older women. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that leads to destruction of bile ducts. The other choices are less likely because Hepatitis C typically presents with acute symptoms, Hemochromatosis presents with iron overload symptoms, and Wilson's disease presents with copper accumulation symptoms, which do not match the patient's clinical presentation.
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An 89-year-old male client complains to the nurse that people are whispering behind his back and mumbling when they talk to him. What age-related condition is likely to be occurring with this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Presbyopia
- C. Presbycusis
- D. Cerebral dysfunction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Presbycusis. This age-related condition refers to gradual hearing loss typically seen in older adults. In this case, the client's complaint of people whispering and mumbling suggests difficulty hearing clearly, which aligns with symptoms of presbycusis. Delirium (choice A) is characterized by acute confusion and disorientation, not specifically related to hearing loss. Presbyopia (choice B) is a condition of aging that affects near vision, not hearing. Cerebral dysfunction (choice D) refers to broader cognitive impairment, not specifically related to hearing loss as in presbycusis. Therefore, choice C is the most likely age-related condition in this scenario.
A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Pancreatic cancer
- B. Chronic pancreatitis
- C. Gallstones
- D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for a 50-year-old man with jaundice, dark urine, pruritus, and a mass in the head of the pancreas is pancreatic cancer. Pancreatic cancer commonly presents with obstructive jaundice due to compression of the common bile duct by the tumor in the head of the pancreas. This leads to dark urine (due to increased bilirubin) and pruritus. Chronic pancreatitis typically presents with recurrent abdominal pain, not progressive jaundice. Gallstones can cause obstructive jaundice but are not associated with a mass in the pancreas. Primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with jaundice, but it typically involves intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts, not the pancreas.
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin affects the clotting process by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring PT helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy and prevent complications like bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but not directly affected by warfarin. Hemoglobin level (C) and white blood cell count (D) are not typically affected by warfarin therapy.
A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
- A. Upper endoscopy
- B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
- C. Barium swallow
- D. Esophageal manometry
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Barium swallow. In this case, the patient's symptoms suggest a possible esophageal disorder affecting solid food ingestion. Barium swallow is a non-invasive test that can detect structural abnormalities in the esophagus, such as strictures or tumors, that may be causing dysphagia. It is the best initial test to evaluate the patient's symptoms as it provides a detailed visualization of the esophagus and can identify the cause of dysphagia. Upper endoscopy (choice A) would be appropriate if structural abnormalities are suspected. Chest/abdominal CT scan (choice B) may not provide as detailed information about esophageal function. Esophageal manometry (choice D) is more useful for evaluating motor function of the esophagus, which is not the primary concern in this case.
The client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which recommendation should be made?
- A. Increase your intake of saturated fats.
- B. Limit your alcohol intake to two drinks per day.
- C. Engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week.
- D. Use table salt liberally to season your food.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, engaging in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise per week. Regular exercise helps lower blood pressure by strengthening the heart, improving blood flow, and reducing stress. It also helps with weight management, which is crucial for hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because saturated fats can increase the risk of heart disease and worsen hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because excessive alcohol intake can raise blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because excessive salt intake can lead to high blood pressure. Overall, regular exercise is a key lifestyle modification for managing hypertension.