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A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Flumazenil
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Calcium gluconate. In hypermagnesemia, there is an excess of magnesium in the blood, leading to muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory depression. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for hypermagnesemia as it works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium. By administering calcium gluconate, the nurse can help reverse the symptoms associated with hypermagnesemia and restore normal calcium levels in the body. Protamine sulfate (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of heparin, acetylcysteine (Choice B) is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, and flumazenil (Choice D) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines. These medications are not indicated for hypermagnesemia.
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A nurse is planning to administer medication to an older adult client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Tilt the client's head back when administering the medications
- B. Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client
- C. Administer more than one pill to the client at a time
- D. Place the medications on the back of the client's tongue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client. This is the safest option for a client with dysphagia as it reduces the risk of choking or aspiration. Mixing medications with food can help make swallowing easier and safer for the client. Tilt the client's head back (A) can increase the risk of choking. Administering more than one pill at a time (C) can lead to swallowing difficulties. Placing medications on the back of the tongue (D) can trigger a gag reflex in clients with dysphagia.
A nurse is preparing to administer 4,000 units of heparin subcutaneously to a client who has deep-vein thrombosis. Available is heparin 10,000 units/mL. How many mL of heparin should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Correct Answer: 0.4
Rationale: To calculate the mL of heparin to administer, use the formula: desired dose (4,000 units) ÷ concentration (10,000 units/mL) = X mL. 4,000 ÷ 10,000 = 0.4 mL. The correct answer is 0.4 mL because it accurately represents the calculated dose needed for the client. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.
The nurse is ready to begin the blood transfusion. For each potential nursing action, click to specify if the action is indicated or not indicated for the client.
- A. Document the blood product transfusion in the client's medical record.
- B. Stay with the client for the first 15 min of the transfusion.
- C. Titrate the rate of infusion to maintain the client's blood pressure at least 90/60 mm Hg.
- D. Obtain the first unit of packed RBCs from the blood bank.
- E. Start an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [0, 1, 0, 0]
The correct answer is Stay with the client for the first 15 min of the transfusion. This action is indicated to monitor for adverse reactions such as fever, chills, or signs of hemolysis. Documenting the blood product transfusion (A) is important but not a priority during the initial phase. Titrating the infusion rate (C) and obtaining the blood product (D) are essential, but staying with the client for monitoring takes precedence. Starting an IV bolus (E) is not related to blood transfusion monitoring.
A nurse manager is planning an in-service about pain management with opioids for clients who have cancer. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include?
- A. IM administration is recommended if PO opioids are ineffective
- B. Respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops
- C. Meperidine is the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain
- D. Withhold PRN pain medication for the client who is receiving opioids every 6 hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops. Opioid tolerance occurs with prolonged use, leading to a decrease in the side effect of respiratory depression. This information is crucial for healthcare providers managing cancer pain with opioids. Choice A is incorrect because oral administration is preferred over intramuscular for better absorption and convenience. Choice C is incorrect as meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to its toxic metabolite. Choice D is incorrect as PRN pain medication should not be withheld for clients on scheduled opioid doses to ensure adequate pain control.
A nurse is assessing for allergies with a client who is scheduled to receive the influenza vaccine. Which of the following allergies should the nurse report to the provider as a possible contraindication to receiving the vaccine?
- A. Eggs
- B. Shellfish
- C. Peanuts
- D. Milk
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Influenza vaccines are typically produced using eggs, so individuals with egg allergies may have an allergic reaction to the vaccine. Reporting this allergy to the provider is crucial to avoid potential adverse reactions. Shellfish, peanuts, and milk allergies are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine. Summary: Eggs are the correct answer due to the vaccine production method; shellfish, peanuts, and milk allergies are not relevant in this context.