A 65-year-old female presented to the emergency room with complaint of progressively worsening fatigue, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Upon assessment, heart rate is 130 beats per minute and irregular, and there is positive jugular vein distention. Heart tones reveal a high-pitched holosystolic murmur. Which of the following disorders are consistent with these findings?
- A. Mitral regurgitation
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Mitral valve prolapse
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mitral regurgitation leaks blood back holosystolic murmur, irregular tachycardia, JVD, and dyspnea fit, as left heart flops, backing up into veins. Stenosis murmurs diastolic; prolapse clicks midsystolic; aortic regurgitation's early diastolic. Nurses tie this to MR's volume overload, anticipating echo, a match for this failing valve tale.
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Which of the following statements on NAFLD is false?
- A. Weight loss is the prime way of management
- B. Long-term management is needed
- C. Patients should be referred to specialists for further evaluation
- D. Metformin should be used as first-line treatment in patients with NAFLD and diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Weight loss (5-10%) is prime for NAFLD, long-term care is essential, and specialist referral aids complex cases all true. Statins manage dyslipidemia safely in NAFLD. Metformin, though first-line for diabetes, isn't for NAFLD itself lacking evidence for steatosis reversal making this false. Physicians must clarify this in chronic care planning.
Which of the following is a treatment option for a client with infective endocarditis?
- A. Bedrest
- B. Antimicrobials
- C. Diet modification
- D. Antihypertensive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Infective endocarditis bacterial valve infection needs antimicrobials to kill pathogens like *Streptococcus*, the root cause, halting damage and sepsis. Bedrest aids recovery but doesn't treat. Diet tweaks support health, not infection. Antihypertensives manage pressure, irrelevant to endocarditis's microbial core. Nurses anticipate antibiotics, often IV for weeks, targeting the source, a priority to save valves and lives in this high-mortality condition, aligning with infectious disease protocols.
In which ethnic group are people over 35 years advised to have their blood glucose levels checked because of the risk of type 2 diabetes?
- A. Creoles
- B. Hindu
- C. Moroccans
- D. Turks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hindus over 35 South Asian risk rockets type 2, outpacing others' odds. Nurses screen this, a chronic ethnic flag.
Appropriate statements concerning intrathecal drug delivery systems include:
- A. In a patient with progressive cancer-related pain, a low-grade pelvic infection is an absolute contraindication for implanting either an intrathecal catheter or a pump, even under antibiotic cover.
- B. Intrathecally administered opioids circulate to the central neuraxis, including the brainstem, where they are likely to cause drowsiness and respiratory depression.
- C. In difficult cases, ziconotide can be administered with either an opioid or clonidine, or both.
- D. As a mixture of opioid and clonidine is expected to distribute throughout the cerebrospinal fluid, the level of the catheter in the intrathecal space is unlikely to be important.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intrathecal drug delivery systems (IDDS) manage severe pain with nuances. A low-grade pelvic infection isn't an absolute contraindication; implantation may proceed with antibiotics if benefits outweigh risks (e.g., cancer palliation). Intrathecal opioids do reach the brainstem via cerebrospinal fluid, causing drowsiness and respiratory depression, though less than systemic routes due to lower doses still a key risk requiring monitoring. Ziconotide combines with opioids or clonidine for synergy in refractory pain, per clinical practice. Catheter tip position matters; drug distribution isn't uniform higher placement enhances rostral spread, affecting efficacy and side effects. MRI compatibility exists with most modern pumps. The brainstem effect of opioids underscores IDDS's potency and danger, necessitating careful titration and patient selection.
Which statement is true regarding CT and LP in AIDS patients?
- A. they should all have a CT prior to LP
- B. if they have no focal neurology they do not need a CT
- C. if they have a GSC of 15 they do not need a CT
- D. all of the above are true
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: AIDS LP CT skips if no focal signs, full GCS, no fever push; all hold. Blanket CT's overkill nurses weigh risks, a chronic brain check dance dodging pressure flops.
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