A 70-year old male diagnosed with BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia) asks the nurse about his disease. The best response would be:
- A. "It an be caused by chronic infection of the urinary tract."
- B. "It was caused by your chronic cigarette smoking."
- C. "As you age, hormonal imbalances are the more likey cause of your disease."
- D. "Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone can cause BPH."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Option C, "As you age, hormonal imbalances are the more likely cause of your disease," is the best response. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in aging men characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. It is predominantly influenced by hormonal changes, specifically the imbalance between levels of testosterone and estrogen as men age. This hormonal imbalance leads to the proliferation of prostatic tissue and subsequent enlargement of the prostate gland, causing symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, weak stream, and difficulty emptying the bladder. Chronic infection of the urinary tract (Option A) and chronic cigarette smoking (Option B) are not the primary causes of BPH. While chronic obstruction of the bladder due to a stone (Option D) can cause similar symptoms to BPH, the underlying etiology of BPH is related to hormonal changes associated with aging.
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Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
- A. Emergency Numbers
- B. Relaxation technique
- C. Drug Compliance
- D. Dietary prescription SITUATION: Mr. Franco, 70 years old, suddenly could not lift his spoons nor speak at breakfast. He was rushed to the hospital unconscious. His diagnosis was CVA.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the case of Mr. Dela Isla, who suffered a CVA, one of the most important discharge teachings would be drug compliance. Following a stroke, patients are often prescribed medications to help manage their condition and reduce the risk of further complications. It is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand the importance of taking his medications as prescribed by his healthcare provider. Non-compliance with medication regimens can have serious consequences and may increase the likelihood of recurrent strokes or other health issues. Therefore, ensuring that Mr. Dela Isla understands the purpose of his medications, how to take them correctly, and the potential side effects is essential for his recovery and ongoing health management. While emergency numbers, relaxation techniques, and dietary prescriptions are important aspects of care, ensuring drug compliance is critical for the immediate and long-term well-being of a patient who has experienced a stroke.
An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she is very suicidal. The nurse asks her whether she has a specific plan. Asking this should be considered:
- A. an appropriate part of the assessment.
- B. not a critical part of the assessment.
- C. suggesting that the adolescent needs a plan.
- D. encouraging the adolescent to devise a plan.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asking an adolescent girl who expresses suicidal thoughts whether she has a specific plan is an appropriate part of the assessment. This question helps the nurse determine the level of risk and urgency of the situation. Knowing whether there is a specific plan in place can guide the nurse in determining the appropriate intervention and level of care needed to ensure the safety and well-being of the adolescent. It is crucial to assess for the presence of a specific plan as it can indicate a higher risk of imminent harm.
You are evaluating a 6-mo-old girl with a firm right suprarenal mass. Histologically, there is no bony involvement, 10% bone marrow involvement, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and massive abdominal mass. The N-myc oncogene is not amplified. According to the international neuroblastoma staging system, the infant is stratified as
- A. stage I
- B. stage II A
- C. stage III
- D. stage IV S
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stage IV S refers to infants <1 year with localized primary tumor, distant metastases limited to liver, skin, or bone marrow (with <10% involvement), and no amplification of N-myc.
Mr. RR is to have a brain scanning. Nursing intervention in preparation for this test includes:
- A. Discontinuing any anticonvulsant therapy
- B. Obtaining consent for the treatment
- C. Explaining to Mr. RR that although his head will be supported in place for a period of time, the test will not be painful.
- D. Informing Mr. RR that nausea and headache are frequent following this test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nursing intervention in preparation for a brain scanning test such as an MRI or CT scan should include explaining to the patient (Mr. RR in this case) that although his head will be supported in place for a period of time during the test, the procedure itself will not be painful. Providing this explanation helps to alleviate any anxiety or fear Mr. RR may have about the test and ensures that he feels comfortable and well-informed before the procedure. This communication is key to promoting a positive patient experience and ensuring cooperation during the test. It also helps in managing patient expectations and reducing any potential stress or discomfort during the scanning process.
. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?
- A. High corticotropin and low cortisol levels
- B. high corticotropin and high cortisol levels
- C. Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels
- D. Low corticotropin and low cortisol levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma, also known as Cushing's disease, results in an overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone (corticotropin). This excess corticotropin stimulates the adrenal glands to produce increased levels of cortisol. Therefore, a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma would typically exhibit high levels of both corticotropin and cortisol. Option B is the correct choice, as it indicates elevated levels of both hormones, suggesting the presence of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.