Adult Medical Surgical ATI

Adult Medical Surgical ATI Related

Review Adult Medical Surgical ATI related questions and content

A 70-year-old woman presents with fatigue, anorexia, and weight loss. She has noticed darkening of her skin, particularly in sun-exposed areas. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Cushing's syndrome
  • B. Addison's disease
  • C. Hypothyroidism
  • D. Pheochromocytoma
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for the 70-year-old woman is Addison's disease. The symptoms of fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, darkened skin, along with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels indicate adrenal insufficiency. Addison's disease is characterized by inadequate production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal glands. The darkening of the skin, known as hyperpigmentation, is a classic sign of Addison's due to increased ACTH levels stimulating melanin production. In contrast, Cushing's syndrome presents with weight gain, hypertension, and high cortisol levels. Hypothyroidism typically presents with weight gain, cold intolerance, and constipation. Pheochromocytoma presents with hypertension, palpitations, and headaches due to excess catecholamine production. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

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A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal low TSH and high free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Hypothyroidism
  • B. Hyperthyroidism
  • C. Thyroiditis
  • D. Thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperthyroidism. In this case, the low TSH and high free T4 levels indicate overproduction of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Low TSH is a result of negative feedback due to high T4 levels. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in excess thyroid hormone production. Other choices are incorrect because hypothyroidism would show high TSH levels, thyroiditis typically presents with thyroid tenderness and inflammation, and thyroid cancer usually does not cause these hormonal imbalances.

A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Peptic stricture
  • B. Esophageal cancer
  • C. Achalasia
  • D. Esophageal spasm
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Esophageal cancer. Given the patient's age, symptoms of difficulty swallowing and weight loss, along with a history of chronic heartburn not responding to proton-pump inhibitors, esophageal cancer is the most likely diagnosis. Esophageal cancer commonly presents with dysphagia, weight loss, and a history of chronic reflux. Peptic stricture (A) typically presents with dysphagia but is less likely given the worsening symptoms despite treatment. Achalasia (C) presents with dysphagia and regurgitation, but not typically with weight loss. Esophageal spasm (D) presents with chest pain and dysphagia, but not typically with weight loss or chronic heartburn.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

  • A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
  • B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
  • C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
  • D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. High blood pressure can worsen kidney function and increase the risk of cardiovascular complications during hemodialysis. The nurse should report this finding to the healthcare provider for prompt management.

A: Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern before hemodialysis.
C: Heart rate of 80 beats per minute is within normal range and not a priority assessment for pre-dialysis.
D: Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L is within normal limits and does not require immediate attention before hemodialysis.

An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

  • A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
  • B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
  • C. Prescribe celecoxib
  • D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. This option is the most appropriate because it balances the need for cost-effectiveness with the concern for peptic ulcers in an elderly patient. Starting with a simple NSAID reduces the risk of adverse effects and minimizes the financial burden on the patient. Option B adds misoprostol, which may help protect the stomach but increases the cost. Option C, prescribing celecoxib, is more expensive and carries a higher cardiovascular risk. Option D, adding sucralfate, does not have strong evidence for preventing NSAID-induced ulcers and adds unnecessary cost. Therefore, option A is the most suitable choice for this scenario.

A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A. Acute cholecystitis
  • B. Peptic ulcer disease
  • C. Acute pancreatitis
  • D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pancreatitis. The patient's symptoms of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, along with nausea, vomiting, and a history of heavy alcohol use, are classic for acute pancreatitis. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels further support this diagnosis, as they are key markers of pancreatic inflammation. Acute cholecystitis (A) typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. Peptic ulcer disease (B) is characterized by burning epigastric pain that improves with food intake. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (D) presents with heartburn and regurgitation, not the severe symptoms seen in this case.

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