The Hematologic System ATI Related

Review The Hematologic System ATI related questions and content

A 9-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with emesis and headache of 3 weeks' duration. MRI reveals a large heterogeneous mass in the cerebellum. He undergoes a resection, and the pathology is most consistent with a classic medulloblastoma. Which of the following findings would classify the patient as a high-risk medulloblastoma?

  • A. Elevated serum and CSF AFP and beta-HCG tumor markers
  • B. WNT subgrouping on molecular classification
  • C. A presurgical spine MRI that reveals bulky tumor in the spine
  • D. A postoperative brain MRI with no signs of residual tumor
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A presurgical spine MRI revealing bulky tumor in the spine classifies the patient as high-risk due to leptomeningeal spread. This indicates dissemination of the tumor cells beyond the primary site, leading to a poorer prognosis. Choice A is incorrect as AFP and beta-HCG markers are associated with germ cell tumors, not medulloblastomas. Choice B is incorrect as WNT subgrouping is associated with better outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of residual tumor postoperatively does not necessarily indicate high-risk disease.