Nokea
A patient has a bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest. Before the procedure, the patient's vital signs were: blood pressure 132/82 mm Hg and pulse 88 beats/min. One hour after the procedure, the blood pressure is 108/70 mm Hg and pulse is 96 beats/min. Which assessment is the least important for the patient at this time?
- A. Observe the puncture site.
- B. Check the patient's most recent complete blood count report.
- C. Ask the patient about feelings of lightheadedness or dizziness.
- D. Determine if the patient had any medications before the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the patient's most recent complete blood count report. This assessment is the least important at this time because changes in vital signs post-bone marrow aspiration are more indicative of immediate complications such as bleeding or shock, which require prompt attention. Checking the complete blood count report would not provide immediate actionable information in this acute situation.
Summary:
A: Observing the puncture site is important for signs of bleeding or infection.
C: Asking the patient about lightheadedness or dizziness is crucial to assess for signs of hypovolemia or shock.
D: Determining if the patient had any medications before the procedure is essential to identify possible adverse drug interactions.
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A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What nursing assessment is best to assess for pallor in this client?
- A. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye.
- B. Have the patient open the hand widely.
- C. Look at the roof of the patient's mouth.
- D. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. Pallor is difficult to detect in dark-skinned individuals due to the lack of contrast. The conjunctiva of the eye provides a reliable area to assess for pallor as it is mucous membrane with blood vessels that can show changes in color. It is not accurate to assess for pallor by having the patient open the hand widely (B) as skin color on hands may vary. Looking at the roof of the mouth (C) may not accurately reflect pallor. Palpating for areas of mild swelling (D) does not assess for pallor, but rather for edema.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention?
- A. Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
- B. Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube.
- C. Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day.
- D. Assign responsibility for the patient's nutrition to the patient's friends and family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. This intervention is appropriate for the patient showing early signs of malnutrition as it aims to increase the patient's nutrient intake in a manageable way. Small, soft-textured meals are easier for the patient to consume and digest, promoting better absorption of nutrients. This approach also aligns with the principle of promoting oral intake whenever possible before resorting to more invasive measures like TPN or PEG tube placement.
Incorrect choices:
A: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate oral feeding at all or have significant malabsorption issues.
B: Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement is usually considered if the patient cannot meet their nutritional needs orally in the long term.
D: Assigning responsibility for the patient's nutrition to friends and family is not a sustainable or appropriate solution for addressing malnutrition in a hospitalized patient.
The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- C. Reteplase (Retavase)
- D. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Platelet inhibitors like Clopidogrel work by preventing blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is commonly used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent blood clots. Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the liver, but it does not directly target platelets like Clopidogrel.
You are caring for a patient with a large localized Ewing sarcoma of the soft tissues of the arm. The surgeon believes that the tumor can be resected without amputation but asks whether you can give some chemotherapy to shrink the tumor before surgery. Which of the following would you tell the surgeon?
- A. If the tumor can be resected without amputation, then the best time to do the resection is before any chemotherapy to improve the prognosis.
- B. You agree with waiting to do the resection until week 12 of therapy and will begin chemotherapy; you recognize that radiotherapy will not be necessary if the tumor is completely resected at week 12 of therapy.
- C. You agree with waiting to do the resection until week 12 of therapy and will begin chemotherapy; you recognize that radiotherapy will be necessary even if the tumor is completely resected at week 12 of therapy.
- D. If the tumor can be resected without amputation, then the best time to do the resection is before any chemotherapy; you recognize that this is the only way to avoid radiotherapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Agreeing to wait until week 12 of therapy before resection allows chemotherapy to shrink the tumor, making surgery easier and potentially less extensive.
Step 2: Waiting until week 12 also helps assess the tumor's response to chemotherapy, guiding further treatment decisions.
Step 3: Choosing not to delay the resection until week 12 may risk more extensive surgery or complications due to the tumor's size.
Step 4: Opting for radiotherapy regardless of tumor resection status at week 12 is not advisable as unnecessary radiation exposure should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption, not excess stomach acid. Premature graying of hair is unrelated. Presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibody and risk of gastric polyps are associated with pernicious anemia, but not hyperchlorhydria. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical symptoms and characteristics of pernicious anemia.