Nokea
A patient has an altered level of T and B cells. The nurse realizes that these cells are members of which cell type?
- A. Platelets
- B. Eosinophils
- C. Lymphocytes
- D. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lymphocytes. T and B cells are subtypes of lymphocytes, which are crucial components of the immune system. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, while B cells are responsible for producing antibodies. Platelets (A), eosinophils (B), and red blood cells (D) do not have the same functions or roles as T and B cells in the immune system. Platelets are involved in blood clotting, eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions, and red blood cells are responsible for oxygen transport.
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The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- C. Reteplase (Retavase)
- D. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Platelet inhibitors like Clopidogrel work by preventing blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is commonly used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent blood clots. Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the liver, but it does not directly target platelets like Clopidogrel.
You are consulting on a 10-year-old male with severe persistent neutropenia, a history of recurrent infections, and warts. The rest of the peripheral blood count is normal. His mother also has neutropenia. Bone marrow examination shows a hypercellular marrow and retained myeloid cells with vacuolated cytoplasm. There are no abnormalities in the red cells or platelet precursors. Cytogenetics are 46XY. You start granulocyte colony stimulating factor therapy and the neutrophil count increases. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely to have caused this familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome?
- A. CXCR4
- B. ELANE
- C. GATA 2
- D. Mitochondrial DNA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CXCR4. In this case, the familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome with severe neutropenia, recurrent infections, and warts suggests WHIM syndrome. WHIM syndrome is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the CXCR4 gene, leading to impaired neutrophil trafficking. The symptoms and bone marrow findings in this patient align with WHIM syndrome. Choice B (ELANE) is associated with cyclic neutropenia, not WHIM syndrome. Choice C (GATA 2) is linked to familial myelodysplastic syndromes and acute myeloid leukemia, not WHIM syndrome. Choice D (Mitochondrial DNA) is not associated with WHIM syndrome. Therefore, the mutation in CXCR4 is the most likely cause of the familial inherited bone marrow failure syndrome in this patient.
A 16-year-old female patient with severe factor XI deficiency presents with acute appendicitis and requires urgent surgery. You are called by the surgeon, who wants to know what, if any, blood products or treatments are required to reduce the risk of perioperative bleeding. The patient weighs 62 kg. What should you tell him to administer?
- A. Cryoprecipitate (five units), which will likely raise her factor XI level to 20%
- B. Factor XI concentrate (20 units/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
- C. Fresh frozen plasma (20 mL/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
- D. Prothrombin complex concentrate (40 units/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fresh frozen plasma (20 mL/kg), which will raise her factor XI level to 20%. Fresh frozen plasma contains various clotting factors, including factor XI. In a patient with severe factor XI deficiency, administering fresh frozen plasma can increase factor XI levels and help reduce the risk of perioperative bleeding. The dose of 20 mL/kg is appropriate for this patient's weight of 62 kg. Cryoprecipitate (choice A) may contain factor XI but is not the optimal choice for raising factor XI levels specifically. Factor XI concentrate (choice B) would be ideal but is not commonly available, making fresh frozen plasma a more practical option. Prothrombin complex concentrate (choice D) primarily contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, but not factor XI, so it would not effectively raise factor XI levels in this patient.
Incorrect about pernicious an:
- A. hyperchlorhydria
- B. premature graying of hair
- C. anti intrinsic factor antibody in 60% of pts.
- D. gastric polyp may occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperchlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency due to impaired absorption, not excess stomach acid. Premature graying of hair is unrelated. Presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibody and risk of gastric polyps are associated with pernicious anemia, but not hyperchlorhydria. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the typical symptoms and characteristics of pernicious anemia.
You are seeing a 12-year-old female who presented to the emergency department with the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. Imaging that was obtained to rule out appendicitis revealed a mass adjacent to the bladder. The mass was surgically resected, and pathology demonstrated a paraganglioma. Which of the studies below would be most useful to determine disease stage for this patient?
- A. Bone Scan
- B. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid cytology
- C. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
- D. Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT. This imaging study is the most useful for determining the disease stage in a patient with paraganglioma. Paragangliomas are neuroendocrine tumors that express somatostatin receptors, which can be detected using Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT. This imaging modality helps to localize primary and metastatic lesions, as well as assess disease extent and stage.
Now let's analyze the other options:
A: Bone Scan - Not useful for determining disease stage in paraganglioma.
B: Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid cytology - Not indicated for staging paraganglioma.
C: Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy - Not specific for staging paraganglioma.
In summary, Ga 68-DOTATATE PET/CT is the most appropriate study for determining disease stage in a patient with paraganglioma due to its