Nokea
A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900 g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
- A. 1800
- B. 450
- C. 900
- D. 90
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (900 mL). To calculate blood loss, divide the weight of the blood-soaked pad (900 g) by the specific gravity of blood (1 g/mL). This gives 900 mL. Choice A (1800 mL) is incorrect as it doubles the correct amount. Choice B (450 mL) is incorrect as it halves the correct amount. Choice D (90 mL) is incorrect as it divides the correct amount by 10. The key is to convert the weight to volume using the specific gravity of blood to determine the correct blood loss measurement.
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Which laboratory finding is indicative of DIC?
- A. Decreased fibrinogen
- B. Increased platelets
- C. Increased hematocrit
- D. Decreased thromboplastin time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased fibrinogen. In DIC, there is widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen. This results in decreased levels of fibrinogen in the blood. Increased platelets (B) are seen in early stages, but they decrease as consumption continues. Increased hematocrit (C) is a nonspecific finding. Decreased thromboplastin time (D) is not indicative of DIC, as it would typically be prolonged due to consumption of clotting factors.
Which finding would indicate concealed hemorrhage in abruptio placentae?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hard boardlike abdomen
- C. Decrease in fundal height
- D. Decrease in abdominal pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hard boardlike abdomen. This finding indicates concealed hemorrhage in abruptio placentae because it suggests intra-abdominal bleeding causing rigidity and firmness. This is due to blood pooling in the abdomen, leading to a tense, boardlike feeling upon palpation. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of concealed hemorrhage in this context; C) Decrease in fundal height is more characteristic of a missed miscarriage or intrauterine fetal demise; D) Decrease in abdominal pain is not typically associated with concealed hemorrhage, which often presents with severe abdominal pain.
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks' gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy†abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100°F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Uterine infection
- C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
- D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's presentation with crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, hypotension, and tachycardia are indicative of a uterine infection, most likely post-miscarriage. The timing of symptoms 2 weeks after miscarriage aligns with the typical onset of infection. The absence of products of conception being expelled completely could have led to retained tissue causing infection. Ectopic pregnancy (A) would typically present with severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (C) would present with irregular vaginal bleeding and elevated hCG levels. Endometriosis (D) is a chronic condition characterized by pelvic pain and abnormal menstrual bleeding, not an acute post-miscarriage complication.
The nurse admits a client with preeclampsia to the high-risk prenatal unit. Which is the next nursing action after the vital signs have been obtained?
- A. Calling the primary health care provider
- B. Checking the client's reflexes
- C. Determining the client's blood type
- D. Establishing an intravenous (IV) line
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Checking the client's reflexes. This is important in assessing for signs of worsening preeclampsia, such as hyperreflexia. It helps determine the severity of the condition and guides further interventions. Calling the primary health care provider (A) may be necessary but not the immediate next step. Determining the client's blood type (C) is important but not urgent in this situation. Establishing an IV line (D) is important for treatment but assessing reflexes takes priority in preeclampsia management.
Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean birth?
- A. Partial abruptio placentae
- B. Total placenta previa
- C. Ectopic pregnancy
- D. Eclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total placenta previa. In total placenta previa, the placenta completely covers the opening of the cervix, posing a risk of severe bleeding during vaginal delivery. Cesarean birth is necessary to prevent maternal hemorrhage and ensure a safe delivery.
Partial abruptio placentae (A) may require cesarean birth if there is significant bleeding or fetal distress, but it's not an absolute indication for cesarean section. Ectopic pregnancy (C) and eclampsia (D) do not always necessitate cesarean birth unless there are other obstetric indications.