Nokea
A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
- B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
- C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
- D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.
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A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?
- A. Report headaches
- B. Report a rash
- C. Avoid sunlight
- D. Take with meals
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.
A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Start the infusion immediately
- B. Slow down the infusion rate
- C. Contact the provider for prescription clarification
- D. Check blood pressure during the infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.
A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.