Nokea
A client admitted with tuberculosis asks the nurse how long he will have to take his prescription for INH. The best answer for the nurse to give the client is:
- A. It depends on the type of tuberculosis you have.'
- B. You will need to take the INH for approximately 6 months.'
- C. After about 6 weeks, the doctor will discontinue the medication.'
- D. You will remain on INH for an indefinite time period.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: INH (isoniazid) treatment for active tuberculosis typically lasts 6-9 months. Six weeks is too short, and indefinite treatment is incorrect.
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A client is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion for management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 1.5 times greater than normal.
Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
- A. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- B. Slow down the heparin infusion.
- C. Check the prothrombin time (PT) results.
- D. Continue to monitor the client.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require validation? No. Determine the outcome of each answer. (1) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (2) no reason to discontinue or slow the infusion because the PTT is within a therapeutic range (3) prothrombin time (PT) Test is useful for assessing warfarin (Coumadin) therapy (4) correct-expected result of heparin therapy is a prolonged PTT of 1.5 times the control, without signs of hemorrhage
The nurse is performing a post-op assessment of an elderly client with a total hip repair. Although he has not requested medication for pain, the nurse suspects that the client's discomfort is severe and prepares to administer pain medication. Which of the following signs would not support the nurse's assessment of acute post-op pain?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Inability to concentrate
- C. Dilated pupils
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute pain typically increases heart rate, blood pressure, and pupil dilation. Decreased heart rate is not consistent with acute pain.
When providing nursing measures to relieve a 102-degree Fahrenheit fever in a toddler with an infection, what is the most effective intervention?
- A. Use medications to lower the temperature set point
- B. Apply extra layers of clothing to prevent shivering
- C. Immerse the child in a tub containing cool water
- D. Give a tepid sponge bath prior to giving an antipyretic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Use medications to lower the temperature set point. Antipyretics effectively reduce fever by adjusting the hypothalamic set point, preventing complications like seizures.
A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I).
- A. What should the nurse caution the client about to prevent dumping syndrome post-gastrectomy?
- B. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating.
- C. Avoid fluids between meals.
- D. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods.
- E. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To prevent dumping syndrome, the client should avoid large meals high in simple sugars and liquids, which can cause rapid gastric emptying. The client should recline after meals, drink fluids between meals, and reduce carbohydrate intake to stabilize digestion.
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 80 bpm
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypotension (100/60 mmHg) is a serious nitroglycerin side effect, risking inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D are normal findings.