Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free

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A client, age 42, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

  • A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
  • B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
  • C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
  • D. Human papilloma virus infection at age 32
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection at age 32. HPV infection is a well-known risk factor for cervical cancer as certain strains of HPV can lead to cellular changes in the cervix that may progress to cancer. Here's the rationale:
1. HPV is a known risk factor: HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that is strongly linked to the development of cervical cancer.
2. Age of infection: The client's history of acquiring HPV at age 32 is significant as long-standing HPV infection increases the risk of cervical cancer.
3. Other choices are not directly linked: Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Age of sexual activity onset, spontaneous abortion, and eclampsia are not established risk factors for cervical cancer.

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Mr. Reyea complains of hearing ringing noises. The nurse recognizes that this assessment suggests injury of the

  • A. Frontal lobe
  • B. Six cranial nerve (abducent)
  • C. Occipital lobe
  • D. Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear)
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Eight Cranial Nerve (Vestibulocochlear). This nerve is responsible for hearing and balance. Ringing noises indicate a disturbance in hearing function. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Frontal lobe is associated with executive functions, not hearing. B: Six cranial nerve (abducent) controls eye movement. C: Occipital lobe is related to vision, not hearing. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it directly relates to the symptom described.

A 28 y.o man is diagnosed with acute epididymitis. Which of the ff. symptoms supports this diagnosis?

  • A. Burning and pain on urination
  • B. Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum
  • C. Foul-swelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling
  • D. Foul-smelling urine and pain on urination
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Epididymitis is characterized by inflammation of the epididymis, causing symptoms such as severe tenderness and swelling in the scrotum. Choice A is incorrect as burning and pain on urination are more indicative of a urinary tract infection. Choice C, foul-smelling ejaculate and severe scrotal swelling, is not commonly associated with epididymitis. Choice D, foul-smelling urine and pain on urination, may indicate a urinary tract infection but are not specific to epididymitis.

A male client is prescribed medications that depress thrombocytes. The nurse should monitor for which of the ff signs and symptoms in the client?

  • A. Sore throat and swollen glands
  • B. Pernicious anemia with weakness
  • C. Bleeding gums and dark tarry tools
  • D. Thickening of blood and bruising
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools. Thrombocytes are platelets responsible for blood clotting. Medications that depress thrombocytes can lead to decreased clotting ability, resulting in bleeding tendencies. Bleeding gums and dark tarry stools are common signs of bleeding due to decreased platelet function.

A: Sore throat and swollen glands are more indicative of a possible infection or inflammation, not related to thrombocyte depression.
B: Pernicious anemia with weakness is associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, not directly related to thrombocyte depression.
D: Thickening of blood and bruising are not typical signs of decreased platelet function, but rather may be indicative of other conditions like clotting disorders.

Victorio is being managed for diarrhea. Which outcome indictes that fluid resuscitation is successful?

  • A. he passess formed stools at regular intervals
  • B. he reports a decrease in stool frequency and liquidity
  • C. he exhibits frim skin turgor
  • D. he no longer experiences perianal burning
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because firm skin turgor indicates adequate hydration, a key goal of fluid resuscitation in diarrhea management. Firm skin turgor reflects the body's fluid balance and hydration status. When fluid resuscitation is successful, the patient's skin turgor improves due to replenished fluid levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly assess hydration status or the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Passing formed stools, decrease in stool frequency, and absence of perianal burning may be positive outcomes in diarrhea management, but they do not specifically indicate successful fluid resuscitation.

Which of the following questions or statements would be an appropriate termination of the health history interview?

  • A. “Well, I can’t think of anything else to ask you right now.”
  • B. “Can you think of anything else you would like to tell me?”
  • C. “I wish you could have remembered more about your illness.”
  • D. “Perhaps we can talk again sometime. Goodbye.”
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to share any additional information they may have forgotten or overlooked, ensuring a thorough health history interview. Choice A is incorrect as it implies the interviewer is unprepared or disinterested. Choice C is inappropriate as it may make the patient feel guilty or inadequate. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the possibility of gathering more relevant information from the patient.

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