Nokea
A client asks about the effectiveness of natural family planning methods. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Natural family planning is as effective as oral contraceptives when used correctly.
- B. The effectiveness of natural family planning depends on consistent monitoring and abstinence during fertile periods.
- C. Natural family planning is less effective than barrier methods like condoms.
- D. Natural family planning requires no special equipment or cost.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The effectiveness of natural family planning depends on consistent monitoring and abstinence during fertile periods. It is less effective than oral contraceptives or barrier methods due to variability in ovulation and user adherence.
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Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to the parents of a neonate diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia who is receiving phototherapy?
- A. Keep the neonate's eyes completely covered.
- B. Use a regular diaper on the neonate.
- C. Offer feedings every 4 hours.
- D. Check the oral temperature every 8 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the neonate's eyes completely covered protects them from potential retinal damage during phototherapy.
A nurse is counseling a client about the use of spermicides. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use spermicide with a condom for better protection.
- B. Spermicide should be applied 10-30 minutes before intercourse.
- C. Spermicide is effective for up to 24 hours after application.
- D. Spermicide may cause vaginal irritation in some users.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spermicide is effective for about 1 hour after application, not 24 hours, indicating a need for further teaching. The other statements are correct.
The physician orders intermittent fetal heart rate monitoring for a 20-year-old obese primigravid client at 40 weeks' gestation who is admitted to the birthing center in the first stage of labor. The nurse should monitor the client's fetal heart rate pattern at which of the following intervals?
- A. Every 15 minutes during the latent phase.
- B. Every 30 minutes during the active phase.
- C. Every 60 minutes during the initial phase.
- D. Every 2 hours during the transition phase.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a low-risk primigravid client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, intermittent fetal heart rate monitoring is typically performed every 30 minutes to ensure fetal well-being, as per standard obstetric guidelines. More frequent monitoring (every 15 minutes) is reserved for the second stage or high-risk cases, while less frequent intervals (every 60 minutes or 2 hours) are insufficient for active labor.
A 21-year-old primigravid client at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. The client's cervix is 8 cm and completely effaced at 0 station. During the transition phase of labor, which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Impaired urinary elimination related to nothing-by-mouth status.
- B. Risk for injury related to hyperventilation and dizziness.
- C. Ineffective coping related to lack of confidence.
- D. Pain related to increasing frequency and intensity of uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the transition phase (8–10 cm), intense and frequent contractions cause significant pain, making pain management the priority nursing diagnosis. Urinary elimination issues are less urgent, hyperventilation is a secondary concern, and coping issues are not as immediate as pain.
A primiparous client post-cesarean asks about preventing constipation. The nurse should recommend:
- A. Limiting fluid intake to avoid bladder distention.
- B. Eating a low-fiber diet for the first week.
- C. Increasing intake of fruits and whole grains.
- D. Taking a laxative daily for 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fruits and whole grains provide fiber, promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation.