A client asks the nurse about the effectiveness of natural family planning methods. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Natural family planning is as effective as oral contraceptives when used correctly.
- B. The effectiveness of natural family planning depends on consistent monitoring and abstinence during fertile periods.
- C. Natural family planning is less effective than barrier methods likeå®çŸ³
- D. Natural family planning requires no special equipment or cost.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The effectiveness of natural family planning depends on consistent monitoring and abstinence during fertile periods. It is less effective than oral contraceptives or barrier methods due to variability in ovulation and user adherence.
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While assessing the episiotomy site of a primiparous client on the first postpartum day, the nurse observes a fairly large hemorrhoid at the client's rectum. After instructing the client about measures to relieve hemorrhoid discomfort, which of the following client statements indicates the need for additional teaching?
- A. I should try to gently manually replace the hemorrhoid.
- B. Analgesic sprays and witch hazel pads can relieve the pain.
- C. I should lie on my back as much as possible to relieve the pain.
- D. I should drink lots of water and eat foods that have a lot of roughage.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lying on the back increases pressure on hemorrhoids, worsening discomfort; the other statements reflect correct measures.
A 24-year-old primigravid client in active labor requests use of the jet hydrotherapy tub to aid in pain relief. The nurse bases the response on the understanding that this therapy is commonly contraindicated for clients with which of the following?
- A. A required membranes.
- B. Multifetal gestation.
- C. Diabetes mellitus.
- D. Hypotonic labor patterns.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Jet hydrotherapy (e.g., whirlpool tubs) is contraindicated with ruptured membranes due to the risk of infection from water entering the vaginal canal. Multifetal gestation, diabetes, and hypotonic labor are not absolute contraindications unless other complications are present.
A 28-year-old multigravid client at 28 weeks' gestation diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is receiving intravenous fluids and antibiotics. After teaching the client about the rationale for the aggressive therapy, the nurse determines that the client needs further instruction when she says that acute pyelonephritis can lead to which of the following?
- A. Preterm labor.
- B. Maternal sepsis.
- C. Intrauterine growth retardation.
- D. Congenital fetal anomalies.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute pyelonephritis can cause preterm labor, maternal sepsis, and intrauterine growth retardation due to infection and inflammation. Congenital fetal anomalies are not a direct consequence, indicating a need for further teaching.
The nurse should do which of the following actions first when admitting a multigravid client at 36 weeks' gestation with a probable diagnosis of abruptio placentae?
- A. Prepare the client for a vaginal examination.
- B. Obtain a brief history from the client.
- C. Insert a large-gauge intravenous catheter.
- D. Prepare the client for an ultrasound scan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Establishing IV access is critical in managing abruptio placentae.
The nurse is caring for a primiparous client and her neonate immediately after delivery. The neonate was born at 41 weeks' gestation and weighs 4,082 g (9 lb). Assessing for signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions should be a priority in the neonate?
- A. Anemia.
- B. Hypoglycemia.
- C. Delayed meconium.
- D. Elevated bilirubin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Large-for-gestational-age neonates (e.g., 4,082 g) are at risk for hypoglycemia due to increased metabolic demand and potential maternal diabetes. Hypoglycemia screening is a priority. Anemia, delayed meconium, or hyperbilirubinemia are less immediate.
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