Nokea
A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?
- A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
- B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
- C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
- D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.
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A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Graph the daily weight for the past week.
- B. Decrease IV flow rate.
- C. Assess bilateral lung sounds.
- D. Restrict intake of oral fluids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A 28-year-old client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should be implemented?
- A. Massage the calf and foot.
- B. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot.
- C. Lower the leg off the side of the bed.
- D. Elevate the leg above the heart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?
- A. Urinary output and fluid intake.
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- C. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds.
- D. Heart rate and blood pressure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.
The healthcare provider notes on the fetal monitor that a laboring client has a variable deceleration. Which action should the healthcare provider implement first?
- A. Assess cervical dilation.
- B. Change the client's position.
- C. Administer oxygen via facemask.
- D. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Changing the client's position is the priority intervention for variable decelerations as it can relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially resolving the deceleration and improving fetal oxygenation. Assessing cervical dilation, administering oxygen via facemask, and turning off the oxytocin infusion are important interventions but addressing the fetal distress caused by variable decelerations takes precedence.
The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
- D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.