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A client complains of tinnitus and dizziness and has a diagnosis of Ménière's disease. She asks the nurse, 'What is the cause of Ménière's disease?' What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Ménière's disease is caused by a virus.'
- B. The cause of Ménière's disease is unknown.'
- C. Ménière's disease frequently follows a streptococcal infection.'
- D. It is hereditary. Both of your parents carried the gene for Ménière's disease.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The exact cause of Ménière's disease is unknown, though it involves fluid imbalance in the inner ear.
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The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has a needle in the sclera of the right eyeball just below the iris. Which should the nurse implement first?
- A. Remove the needle with tweezers.
- B. Notify an ophthalmologist to care for the client.
- C. Stabilize the right eye and place a patch over the left eye.
- D. Irrigate the right eye to wash the needle out of the eye.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stabilizing the eye and patching the unaffected eye prevents movement and further damage until surgical removal. Removing the needle, notifying later, or irrigating risks harm.
The 72-year-old client tells the nurse food does not taste good anymore and he has lost a little weight. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client?
- A. Suggest using extra seasoning when cooking.
- B. Instruct the client to keep a seven (7)-day food diary.
- C. Refer the client to a dietitian immediately.
- D. Recommend eating three (3) meals a day.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A food diary identifies intake patterns and weight loss causes, guiding intervention. Extra seasoning is premature, dietitian referral is secondary, and three meals are standard advice.
A 17-year-old client had one generalized convulsion several hours prior to admission to the medical unit for a neurological workup. Physician's orders include Dilantin (phenytoin) 100 mg orally (PO) tid and phenobarbital 100 mg PO daily. He tells the nurse, 'I can't believe I really had a seizure. My mom says she was in the room when it happened, but I don't even remember it.' What is the best interpretation of his comments?
- A. They indicate an initial denial mechanism, but he will begin to remember the seizure later.
- B. Anoxia suffered during the seizure has damaged part of his cerebral cortex.
- C. Inability to remember the seizure is a normal response of a person who has had a seizure.
- D. They are an indication that he would rather not talk about his seizure at this time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amnesia for the seizure event is a normal response due to altered consciousness during a generalized seizure.
The nurse is teaching the client with open-angle glaucoma. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Limit oral fluid intake to 1000 mL daily.
- B. Eat foods that are high in omega-3 fatty acids.
- C. Have annual eye exams with an eye specialist.
- D. Use timolol maleate eye drops when feeling eye pressure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma is a chronic progressive disease; annual eye examinations should be completed by an eye specialist physician. Fluid restriction and omega-3 fatty acids do not affect intraocular pressure. Elevated intraocular pressure cannot be felt, and timolol maleate should be used as prescribed.
The nurse is assessing a client and performs a whisper test. Which should the nurse implement? Rank in order of performance.
- A. Have the client cover the ear not being tested.
- B. Stand 12 to 24 inches to the side of the client.
- C. Explain to the client to repeat what the nurse says.
- D. Repeat the test for the opposite ear.
- E. Ask the client if he/she is willing to participate in the test.
Correct Answer: E,C,B,A,D
Rationale: 1) Ask for participation (consent); 2) Explain the procedure; 3) Position 12–24 inches away; 4) Cover the non-tested ear; 5) Repeat for the opposite ear.