Nokea
A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:
- A. increased ferning capacity.
- B. lack of ferning.
- C. spinnbarkheit.
- D. inhospitable.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.
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Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
- A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
- B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
- C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
- D. it is based on an educational approach.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.
The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus® (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.
- A. 12
- B. 35
- C. 16
- D. 9
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.
A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?
- A. Behind the knee
- B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
- C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
- D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.
A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?
- A. Coffee
- B. A tuning fork
- C. A wisp of cotton
- D. An ophthalmoscope
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.
Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while lightly palpating a client's right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated with which anatomic structure?
- A. Liver
- B. Spleen
- C. Pancreas
- D. Appendix
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the Appendix. Tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is a classic sign of appendicitis, which is inflammation of the appendix. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant. The other choices are incorrect. The spleen is located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity under the diaphragm. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. The liver fills most of the right upper quadrant and extends to the left midclavicular line.