Nokea
A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Headache
- B. Nausea
- C. Muscle pain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly.
What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Narcan
- C. Romazicon
- D. Naloxone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications.
The following is most suitable for thromboembolic prophylaxis in a patient with a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction three months ago:
- A. Intravenous heparin
- B. Subcutaneous enoxaparin
- C. Oral warfarin
- D. Oral aspirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.