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A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
- A. Trousseau's sign
- B. Hegar's sign
- C. Homan's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a low serum calcium level (hypocalcemia) is at risk for exhibiting Trousseau's sign. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the arm above the systolic pressure for a few minutes. This spasm occurs due to the increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, a nurse assessing a client with a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl should expect to assess Trousseau's sign.
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A 10-mo-old boy has a left suprarenal mass. Surgery is accomplished with complete removal of the mass as well as the non-adherent lymph nodes; surgical biopsies are taken during surgery. The histology reveals poorly differentiated neuroblastoma with microscopic ipsilateral lymph nodes involvement. The contralateral lymph nodes are negative. Of the following, the BEST therapeutic approach for this infant is
- A. chemotherapy
- B. radiotherapy
- C. concomitant chemo-radiotherapy
- D. chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Complete resection with microscopic residual disease typically warrants adjuvant chemotherapy.
The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Trousseau's sign
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypokalamia
- D. Respiratory changes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical sign characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above the systolic pressure for a few minutes. It is indicative of hypocalcemia, specifically low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for Trousseau's sign to assess for potential hypocalcemia. This could prompt the healthcare provider to order further diagnostic tests or interventions to address the underlying calcium imbalance. Options B, C, and D do not directly relate to monitoring for Trousseau's sign.
Bryce is a child diagnosed with coarctation of aorta. While assessing him, Nurse Zach would expect to find which of the following?
- A. Squatting posture
- B. Absent or diminished femoral pulses
- C. Severe cyanosis at birth
- D. Cyanotic ("tet") episodes 46
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect where there is a narrowing of the aorta, usually near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. This narrowing can lead to decreased blood flow to the lower body. A common finding in a child with coarctation of the aorta is absent or diminished femoral pulses due to the obstruction of blood flow through the narrowed aorta. Other symptoms may include high blood pressure in the arms, weak lower body pulses, and heart murmur. Squatting posture, severe cyanosis at birth, and cyanotic ("tet") episodes are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta.
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
- A. Antihistamines may increase the potential for excessive bleeding
- B. Antihistamines may aggravate the allergic reaction
- C. Antihistamines may increase the potential for false negative results
- D. Antihistamines may cause wheezing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Antihistamines are medications commonly used to relieve symptoms of allergies, including itching, sneezing, and hives. When a client undergoing a diagnostic skin test for allergies takes antihistamines, it can suppress the body's allergic response, leading to false negative results. This means that the test may not accurately identify all the substances to which the client is allergic, potentially leading to a misdiagnosis. To ensure the accuracy of the skin test, clients are advised to avoid taking antihistamines or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hours before the testing to allow their body to exhibit the appropriate allergic response.
The nurse needs to administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G. it is supplied in a vial of 5,000,000 units of powder for injection. Instructions state to dilute with 8 mL of sterile water. How manu mL should the nurse draw up?
- A. 2.6 mL
- B. 4.1 mL
- C. 3.8 mL
- D. 4.4 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To administer an IM injection of 2.4 million units of penicillin G, the nurse should first reconstitute the penicillin powder with sterile water as per the instructions. The vial contains 5,000,000 units of the powder and when diluted with 8 mL of sterile water, the resulting concentration would be: