A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Abdominal cramping
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Increased thirst
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.
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While administering a cleansing enema, the client reports abdominal cramping. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client hold their breath briefly and bear down.
- B. Clamp the enema tubing.
- C. Remind the client that cramping is common at this time.
- D. Raise the level of the enema fluid container.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client reports abdominal cramping during a cleansing enema, it is important for the nurse to reassure the client that cramping is a common side effect. This reassurance helps the client understand that the cramping is normal and may subside once the enema is completed. Instructing the client to hold their breath and bear down (Choice A) is not appropriate and may cause discomfort. Clamping the enema tubing (Choice B) is unnecessary and could lead to complications. Raising the level of the enema fluid container (Choice D) does not address the client's discomfort due to cramping. Therefore, the most suitable action is to provide reassurance to the client about the common occurrence of cramping during the enema.
Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?
- A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
- B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
- C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
- D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.
A nurse is providing home care for a client who is receiving tube feedings and medication through a gastrostomy tube. The family member providing the feedings reports that the client has begun to have diarrhea. For which of the following practices should the nurse intervene?
- A. The family member washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hours.
- B. The family member washes out the feeding bag with hot water once every 24 hours.
- C. The family member washes out the feeding bag with soap and water every 24 hours.
- D. The family member changes the feeding bag every 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hours is not sufficient to prevent bacterial growth and can lead to diarrhea. Using hot water may damage the feeding bag. Washing out the feeding bag with soap and water every 24 hours is excessive and may leave residue that could be harmful. Changing the feeding bag every 24 hours is important for preventing infections but does not directly address the issue of diarrhea in this case.
The nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent further skin breakdown?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing to the ulcer.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Use a donut-shaped cushion when the client is sitting.
- D. Massage the area around the ulcer to promote circulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is the most appropriate action to prevent further skin breakdown in a client with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. This practice helps relieve pressure on the affected area, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing (Choice A) may be beneficial for wound healing but is not the initial preventive measure. Using a donut-shaped cushion (Choice C) can actually increase pressure on the sacrum and worsen the condition. Massaging the area around the ulcer (Choice D) can further damage delicate skin and tissues, leading to more harm instead of prevention.
A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Increase in hematocrit
- B. Increase in respiratory rate
- C. Decrease in heart rate
- D. Decrease in capillary refill time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.
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