Nokea
A client has been diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma but has no symptoms at this time. The client has received radiation and chemotherapy with responsiveness to this treatment. How would this disease be classified according to the lack of symptoms and responsiveness to treatment?
- A. Indolent
- B. Aggressive
- C. Cured
- D. Immunosuppressed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is classified as either indolent, meaning that the client is relatively asymptomatic at diagnosis, and the disorder is relatively responsive to radiation and chemotherapy; or aggressive, because the condition has a shorter onset with acute symptoms. There is no classification considered cured or immunosuppressed.
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A client with Hodgkin's disease has a weight loss of 10% of body weight 6 months prior to the diagnosis, fever of 101?°F, and drenching night sweats. What sub classification of Hodgkin's disease does this client fit into?
- A. A
- B. B
- C. C
- D. D
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stages I, II, III, and IV of adult Hodgkin's disease are subclassified into A and B categories: B for those with defined general symptoms and A for those without B symptoms. The B designation is given to client with any of the following symptoms: unexplained loss of more than 10% of body weight in 6 months before diagnosis, unexplained fever with temperatures over 100.4?°F, and drenching night sweats. There is no sub classification of C or D.
The nurse is on a mission trip to a third world country to provide nursing care to a large group of clients. A client asks the nurse to look at his leg that is grossly edematous compared to the other extremity. What does the nurse understand is the most common cause of this disorder known as elephantiasis?
- A. Reaction to an antibiotic
- B. Smallpox vaccination
- C. Lack of healthcare
- D. A parasitic worm
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Worldwide, the most common cause of lymphedema is a parasitic worm; mosquitoes transmit the parasite, resulting in a condition known as elephantiasis.
A client has developed an infection that resulted in lymphangitis. What does the nurse suspect the causative organism is that caused the infection?
- A. A streptococcal microorganism
- B. A Staphylococcus microorganism
- C. Escherichia coli
- D. Candida albicans
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An infectious agent, commonly a streptococcal microorganism, usually causes both lymphangitis and lymphadenitis. It is not commonly caused by staph, E. coli, or C. albicans (a fungal infection).
Which client does the nurse recognize as most likely to be diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma rather than Hodgkin's lymphoma?
- A. A 55-year-old client with an immunosuppression disorder
- B. A 35-year-old client with type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. A 20-year-old client with infectious mononucleosis
- D. A 40-year-old client with Reed-Sternberg cells in an axillary lymph node
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma peak onset is after 50 years and is common among clients with immune suppression. There is no correlation with client that has diabetes and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Forty percent of affected clients test positive for Epstein-Barr virus that causes infectious mononucleosis and that test positive for Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes that are correlated with Hodgkin's lymphoma.
A young client has just been diagnosed with lymphoma. The client asks the nurse what a lymphoma is. What would be the nurse's best answer?
- A. It is a group of cancers that affect the body.
- B. It is a group of cancers connected to the hematopoietic system.
- C. It is a group of cancers that affect the lymphatic system.
- D. It is a group of cancers connected to the cardiovascular system.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The term lymphoma applies to a group of cancers that affect the lymphatic system. The correct option is more specific than the option of 'a group of cancers that affect the body.' Lymphomas are not related to the hematopoietic or cardiovascular systems.