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A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C. White blood cells
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
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After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?
- A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
- B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
- C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
- D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.
When assessing constipation in elders, which action should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Obtain a complete blood count
- B. Obtain a health and dietary history
- C. Refer to a provider for a physical examination
- D. Measure height and weight
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a health and dietary history when assessing constipation in elders. This action is crucial as it helps the nurse identify potential causes and contributing factors to constipation in elderly clients. Obtaining a complete blood count (choice A) may be necessary at some point, but it is not the priority in this situation. Referring to a provider for a physical examination (choice C) and measuring height and weight (choice D) are important but are not the priority actions when assessing constipation.
A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12 hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health care provider?
- A. Light pink urine
- B. Occasional suprapubic cramping
- C. Minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag
- D. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with an indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation post TURP, minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag should be reported to the health care provider. This finding could indicate a blockage in the catheter or a complication that requires immediate attention. Light pink urine (choice A) is expected due to bladder irrigation. Occasional suprapubic cramping (choice B) is common post-TURP. Complaints of the feeling of pulling on the urinary catheter (choice D) may indicate discomfort but do not suggest an urgent issue like a potential blockage.
A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
- A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
- B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
- C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
- D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.